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GDL

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And "be sprinkled with his blood" , which is salvation! As GDL has pointed out, two sides of the same coin! We are elected to be saved so that we can obey!

Doug

A clarification of my view re: Faith & Obedience. Back to simple logic again:

NKJ 1 John 3:23 And this is His commandment: that we should believe on the name of His Son Jesus Christ and love one another, as He gave us commandment.

We (people) are commanded to believe in the name of God's Son Jesus Christ. Since belief is commanded, to believe is also being obedient to His command.

This is why we see verses telling us the Gospel is believed & the Gospel is obeyed. The same goes for Salvation, we believe Christ & we obey Christ for it.

This is the same for other things like love for one another as can be seen in this same verse. We cannot love one another without also being obedient to His command to do so.

Simply put, our belief is obedience & our obedience is belief. OUr love is obedience & our obedience is love.

When Peter speaks of being Elect to obey Jesus Christ, it's the same as saying Elect to believe Jesus Christ. This is why Peter speaks so naturally of Faith & Obedience & Love in the same context. All of these words are inextricably linked together. We're the ones who need to see this as He does.
 
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TibiasDad

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I completely agree; obedience is the necessary proof of the reality of belief! Without one, you cannot have the other!

Doug
 
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FreeGrace2

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I quoted:
"1 Cor 1:21 - For since in the wisdom of God the world through its wisdom did not know him, God was pleased through the foolishness of what was preached to save those who believe."
1) πιστεύω is in the present tense...again!
So what? Of course the action of saving faith IS a present tense activity. I've already agreed to that.

2) Are you so blind as to not see that the "choice", the election that God was pleased to make was to "save" (σώζω)? You have proven yourself wrong...again!
Doug
I guess you didn't even read my post. I pointed that out. In fact, 1 Cor 1:21 is the single verse that addresses that God is pleased to save THOSE WHO BELIEVE.

And again, His choice of who to save is found in the large lettered words: THOSE WHO BELIEVE.

IOW, God chooses to save believers.

But, Calvinism has twisted the meaning of election into an unconditional election. But 1 Cor 1:21 shows that one MUST BELIEVE to be saved. The choice of who to save is dependent upon believing.

The way Calvinists try go get around the chink in their armor is to claim that God regenerates the person so that they will believe. But, there are NO verses that say that regeneration precedes faith, which is key to the Calvinistic doctrine of election.

In fact, Eph 2:5 and 8 show that regeneration follows faith.
 
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FreeGrace2

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I said:
"Very loose translation: I can't answer your question."
That's the problem, you think loose translations are valid arguments of truth!
If you had read my post, you would have seen that my comment was about your "answer" to my post. I was just clearing up what your "answer" was really saying.

And I DON'T think "loose translations" are valid arguments of truth. Where in the world did you get that idea?

I asked:
"Instead of just admitting that, why did you think it helpful to throw in an ad hominem?"
I didn't, I set a hypothetical if/then proposition. If you assume the apodosis as true, then you affirm the validity of the protasis, thus making it a true statement and acknowledgement of the fact!
This is your exact response to my question:
"If you can't see the point, then you are a truly brainwashed mind with the inability to think objectively."

How is this statement NOT an ad hominem? It's clearly an attack on my mental ability. And quite wrong.
 
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FreeGrace2

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And "be sprinkled with his blood" , which is salvation!
Actually, not. The mention of Christ's "blood" is a reference to His death on a cross. He died for everyone. Is everyone saved? Of course not. So His death saves no one.

Saving faith is the faith in what He did personally for the believer.

As GDL has pointed out, two sides of the same coin! We are elected to be saved so that we can obey!
Once again, you have ZERO verses that say this. So, all you've got for your doctrine of election to salvation is your opinions.

otoh, I have provided many verses that specifically show that election is for service.

Was Jesus elected to be saved? How silly.

Was the entire nation of Israel elected to be saved? Again, how silly.

Was Judas elected to be saved? Ridiculous.

Was Paul elected to be saved? His own testimony is that he was a "chosen instrument" of the Lord, appointed to His service to preach the gospel.

And Eph 1:4 tells us clearly who God chose. "us". Meaning believers, as v.19 clarifies.

So, election in the NT is not for salvation, since all believers are already saved.

And you need to address EACH and EVERY example of those described as elect and prove that the verses are about salvation and NOT about service.
 
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GDL

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I completely agree; obedience is the necessary proof of the reality of belief! Without one, you cannot have the other!

Doug

Just to tighten it a bit more, so you know more precisely where I am with this, I think the 2 words are used virtually synonymously, at least interchangeably. You may be saying the same thing by saying, "proof," but I'm making sure.

NKJ Romans 10:16 But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, "Lord, who has believed our report?"

"report" is translating Greek akoe here, which just means "a thing heard" - they have not all obeyed the Gospel - as Isaiah says, "Lord, who has believed the thing heard of/from us - belief & obedience are virtually interchangeable in Paul's thoughts here.

NKJ Heb. 3:17-19 17 Now with whom was He angry forty years? Was it not with those who sinned, whose corpses fell in the wilderness? 18 And to whom did He swear that they would not enter His rest, but to those who did not obey? 19 So we see that they could not enter in because of unbelief.

Same comments: sinned & did not obey & unbelief are virtually interchangeable.

So, each is proof of the other, just to make certain we're on the same page.

Now, will the FG side reject this as obedience being a work, or do we find at least one point of agreement in all of this? I can tell you that the FG sector I studied in rejected virtually anything being added to Faith.
 
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GDL

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Sprinkling of His blood is a reference to cleansing & purification. Do a search on the word, "sprinkling" and we find the tie back to the cleansing rituals through the LXX.

Paul says the foundation of the Gospel is that Jesus is the Christ. We find this in 1Cor3, Acts18 where it was impressed on Paul by the Spirit as to what he was to proclaim, and in Acts13, which details at length what Paul was out proclaiming in his travels (and actually in Corinth, which is what he's referring to in 1Cor15 as having taught them before), and within which he refers back to Psalm2 to bring about who YHWH's Annointed (Christ) is & how the kings of the earth best kiss the Son lest He be angry!!!

When we understand this, the Gospel is really point us to who this Messiah is & how He is to be obeyed. What He has done for us all on the cross is secondary to who He is & the points in 1Cor15 re: his death, burial & resurrection is not the entire Gospel (actually you'll find these points near the middle of Paul's proclamation in Acts13), it's not even foundational according to Paul. He brings it up this way in 1Cor15 to get into the vital importance of Christ's resurrection as part of not only our future hope of resurrection, but vital to the fact that Jesus is the [Resurrected] Christ (the foundational point of the Gospel & one of the signs in John's Gospel that Jesus is the Christ) & our Faith is not empty/without purpose/without value.

When this foundational issue is understood, it puts us immediately into the Faith-Obedience mode. We are believing that the One with all authority in Heaven & on earth is who we are being presented with. Christ is a title denoting this authority. Ps2 lays this out strongly & this is why Paul used Ps2 in his real proclamation. The Epistles are being written to people who mostly had been proclaimed to more fully & completely.

In my view after having studied & taught this for years, this lack of foundation is one of the main problems we have in The Faith today. It's why so many are not oriented to bow in obedience to Him as real Faith & Love. Go out and ask several Christians what "Christ" means & see how many of them can tell you it's a title denoting the highest authority. Ask them what Faith is and see if they can immediately connect it to Obedience.

NKJ John 4:21-24 21 Jesus said to her, "Woman, believe Me, the hour is coming when you will neither on this mountain, nor in Jerusalem, worship the Father. 22 "You worship what you do not know; we know what we worship, for salvation is of the Jews. 23 "But the hour is coming, and now is, when the true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and truth; for the Father is seeking such to worship Him. 24 "God is Spirit, and those who worship Him must worship in spirit and truth."

Jesus explained this new era. 8 times in 4 verses He uses this word, "worship." This is proskuneo & it means to bow in obeisance to authority. Here's BDAG's explanation: to express in attitude or gesture one’s complete dependence on or submission to a high authority figure, (fall down and) worship, do obeisance to, prostrate oneself before, do reverence to, welcome respectfully,

This is the foundational issue for mankind to be put back into proper relationship with God. This is why Faith and Obedience are used interchangeably in our Text. This is the mindset of those who wrote our Text and thus the mindset of the Spirit who inspired it.

Sprinkling with His blood is cleansing & purification. It's a picture of the forgiveness of our sins at and can be applied to Initial Salvation and thereafter. Obedience to Christ & Belief in Christ are virtually synonymous and occur initially when we first believe/obey and continually and increasingly as we abide & grow spiritually. It's virtually the same things Jesus is telling us in John4 - 2,000 years ago the hour came when God sent His Christ to bring about true & proper Faith-Obedience in mankind & to increasingly develop it once it was entered into by the new (infant no matter how old in years) Christian. God is seeking those who will bow in obeisance to His authority and He has placed His authority in His Son, Jesus the/His Christ.

This is foundational. This is the foundation of the Gospel. This is the place where Biblical Faith is to be oriented. All the rest is built upon this foundation as Paul points out in 1Cor3 in dealing with a problem of infancy in Corinth.

Check out what I say for yourself: 1Cor3 re: the only foundation Jesus [is the] Christ > Acts 18:5 and context & know that the Greek makes the last words re: what Paul's focus was very emphatic - it's not simply that Jesus is the Christ, but "The Christ - Jesus!!!" - note also in the context Paul's being in Corinth proclaiming The Christ - Jesus!!! > Acts13:16-41 where Paul is speaking to both Jews & Gentiles in a synagogue & includes the reference in 13:33 back to Ps2 with the ordination language of YHWH's Christ - the King, "Your are My Son, today I have begotten You." This is Paul's proclamation of the Gospel of Jesus the Christ & it is full of historical references to the Davidic King & Messiah/Christ - Jesus!!!

If we want to function as wise master-builders (architekton) like Paul, then we best learn how to lay/place the only foundation that is laid/placed. IMO, in this day & condition of things, when we talk to Christians, wise architektons will check first to see what condition the foundation is in before proceeding into other things. I have not acted in sufficient wisdom with one individual on this forum. So, let's hammer out the Gospel & go back to foundations instead of arguing soteriology.
 
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TibiasDad

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I appreciate your detailing, and I would concur with you on nearly every way, but if I am following you correctly (and I may not be, because my allergies are playing havoc with my eyes right now and making it difficult to concentrate and read) I wouldn't seek to stress the identity of Christ, his Deity and Lordship, true and said as that is, over the incarceration, ministry, and ultimate crucifixion and resurrection, for they, like obedience and belief, are both so critical to the whole of the gospel that without either aspect, there would be no gospel. The death and resurrection would be meaningless were the Word not God, and the gospel would be meaningless were it not for the death and resurrection.

We need to preach both aspects equally, that God became flesh and that God in flesh sacrificed himself for our same that we might be reconciled with God. Certainly there are times in which we accentuate one aspect over the other, but I see Christ's identity as God, and thus Lord, and his identity as Savior as co-equal in terms of importance. Paul's "of first importance" is a missionaries POV as a point of focus, and theologically he was, indeed, laying the foundational importance of the resurrection to the Faith as a whole, but unless Jesus, the Word made flesh, was God, he would not have the authority of giving his corpse new life of his own accord.

I agree that the Lordship of Christ and our being his servants is a woefully inadequate message within our preaching, but I am not certain that there is a clear demarcation of "whose on first" in terms of importance of priority.


Doug
 
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TibiasDad

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Yes, I'm glad you worked this in, because I was about to do it myself. The sprinkling, or purification of sin is clearly part and parcel of both our initial forgiveness, and of our continuing cleansing from sin as we grow in Christ. So there is definite connection of initial salvation to the "sprinkling of his blood"!

Doug
 
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TibiasDad

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So what? Of course the action of saving faith IS a present tense activity. I've already agreed to that.

"1 Cor 1:21 - For since in the wisdom of God the world through its wisdom did not know him, God was pleased through the foolishness of what was preached to save those who believe."

Paul writes that God saved all who are believers (present tense believing people!). If he were writing in support of your view, he would have said "those who have believed" (aorist, punctiliar action completed without reference to future possibilities). Paul is writing in the indicative mood, (the God "was pleased" to is in the indicative) meaning that it is stating a condition of reality, of how things actually are. Thus, the use of the aorist would be a possibility. But the imperative mood is seeking a new reality as opposed to a current reality, or a continuation of activity in a current reality. We must do something other than what we are now doing, or we must continue to do as we are doing. This demands the use of the present tense continuous action.

Indicative statements, however, are not so hamstrung. They can use any of the tenses, and the tenses then, in my opinion, hold even more nuanced meaning. If God is indicatively said to save present tense believing people, then present tense believing is a requirement for any present tense act of saving. If the ultimate act of salvation is a future event, the future salvation will be of those with present tense belief at that point!

Doug
 
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GDL

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This is in response to your entire message.

I'm taking what I said right from Paul's writings & from Luke's accounts of what Paul was proclaiming. Paul says the only foundation is Jesus Christ. I'm agreed that he hits all things about Christ, but his only foundation upon which to build is The Christ - Jesus (Jesus is the Christ). And this title, The Christ, demands our obedience.

I haven't hit these things yet, but just about every important word & phrase having to do with us - like Faith, Elect, Born Again, Born from God, Children of God, Love, etc., etc., is connected to Obedience to Him. As I pointed out, Jesus' statements re: obeisance in John4 says leagues about what God is seeking in mankind. Jesus' obedience to our Father even to the point of death on the cross is detailed in Phil2 & is our standard of love. His love of righteousness (obedience) & hatred of lawlessness (sin/disobedience) is said to be the basis for His highest of anointing. His struggle in the garden pre-crucifixion was a struggle to remain in obedience to our Father's will. The Great Commission begins with the resurrected Christ meeting His 11 disciples - some bowed in obeisance & some doubted/hesitated - so He tells them all authority has been given to Him (so I assume the hesitations ceased) - and after He proclaims His highest authority, His mandate was to go baptize all the nations and TEACH ALL HE COMMANDS. Paul's stated service in Rom is to bring all nations to Faith-Obedience. Proskuneo is used many times in Rev re: bowing to God vs. the beast and such. This is all reversal of original sin & the renewal of the creation. What He did for mankind on the cross was to take care of the legalities so we could be freed to love & obey Him in Faith & look forward to His Kingdom where righteousness (natural obedience to His will) dwells.

My point is Foundation and answering the statement that "Saving faith is the faith in what He did personally for the believer." Saving Faith is more than this. Saving Faith according to Paul is first & foundationally who this Jesus is & thus how we are to orient to Him. That's also Christ's mandate to the nations in Matt28 - He has all authority & here are His commands. Ps2 makes it clear that this mandate is also to the kings of the earth at whom He laughs & derides for their thinking they are not under His rule.

Saving Faith is foundationally that Jesus is the Christ & the Christ is the one to whom all knees shall bow. From there are many issues to speak of as Scripture does - and I reject none of them. My concern from extensive study, interactions, observing issues involved in a Church split, being involved in many discussions where I observed a propensity of many to leave off the TEACH ALL HE COMMANDS part of the GC, watching practicing & admitted sexual sinners get on TV and tell us of their Christian faith, and on & on, is that we have a severely cracked foundation, or foundations of sand. We use 1Cor15 to evangelize about what Jesus did for us, but we don't explain what the title "Christ" in 15:3 means. So most do not proskuneo, let alone bow the knee at His name per Phil2. Obedience is still an offensive word to too many.

Lastly for now, once this foundation of Faith-Obedience is firmly set, as Paul speaks of, all the teaching re: continuous abiding belief you've been arguing for is just a natural extension. How does one ever deny The Christ and not have ramifications - temporary or eternal as the case may be? Our response of obedience is built into His title & this is foundational. This is who He is (foundation) & this is what He's done for us.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Why put the tense in parentheses? Of course any action that a person does is done in the PRESENT TENSE. It cannot be any other tense.

Whenever you put your faith in Christ for salvation, you did it in the present tense.

But now, after time has passed SINCE you did put your faith in Christ, it is described as a past action, because it is NOW a past action.

I guess you are still not getting the idea of present tense action.

If he were writing in support of your view, he would have said "those who have believed" (aorist, punctiliar action completed without reference to future possibilities).
No, there is no need for that specific wording. What he said doesn't refute my view at all. As I have been saying, ALL saving faith is done in the PRESENT TENSE.

Paul is writing in the indicative mood, (the God "was pleased" to is in the indicative) meaning that it is stating a condition of reality, of how things actually are.
Yes, reality is that WHEN a person believes, which of course, is a present tense reality, God is pleased to save them.

Thus, the use of the aorist would be a possibility.
Of course it is. And Paul used the aorist several times in regard to salvation. Rom 10:9 and Acts 16:31. Maybe more.

The point has always been that WHEN a person believes in Christ, at THAT POINT in time, which for the one believing, it IS the present tense. And they ARE saved, and they ARE sealed, and they ARE a new creature, and they ARE justified, and they ARE a child of God.

But the imperative mood is seeking a new reality as opposed to a current reality, or a continuation of activity in a current reality.
The imperative mood seeks NOTHING. How silly. That mood is a command.

We must do something other than what we are now doing, or we must continue to do as we are doing. This demands the use of the present tense continuous action.
Yes, a command means to obey. What's your point?

I see what you are trying to do. You are still trying to FORCE the poor little present tense to mean that one MUST CONTINUE to believe in order to continue to be saved.

If that's what you learned in your Greek classes, your Greek teacher is a fraud. Your 3.5 gpa is worthless.

The present tense means action that is occurring in the present time. Or RIGHT NOW, or CURRENTLY. That's ALL it means. It carries NO implication or demand for continuing action IN ORDER for the results of said action to continue.

And that's your error.

If the ultimate act of salvation is a future event, the future salvation will be of those with present tense belief at that point!
Doug
This does not square with the Bible. The Bible speaks of salvation as a completed action. Your words "ultimate act of salvation" highly insinuates that the saving faith expressed during one's life on earth isn't enough, and there WILL BE some future action of faith that is required to "seal the deal", so to speak.

But the Bible NEVER says such things.

In fact, Paul's answer to the jailer totally refutes your claim. His answer to the question of what the jailer MUST DO to be saved was this:

"believe (aorist tense) on the Lord Jesus Christ, and you will be (future tense) be saved."

But you are claiming that there is some kind of "ultimate act of salvation as a future event".

Paul proves you WRONG. At the moment of time when the jailer puts his faith in Christ alone (aorist), he will be saved, a future condition, not an ultimate act, as you put it.

So, Acts 16:31 teaches that from a single moment in time action of saving faith, the believer will be saved. In the future. Actually, from the moment of faith, the believer is saved throughout eternity.

Again, you STILL haven't provided ANY verse that teaches that salvation can be lost.

All you've got is assumptions and presumptions about what certain verses mean.

But NONE of them say directly and clearly that salvation can be lost.

And John 10:28 DOES say directly and clearly that recipients of eternal life (from the moment of faith in Christ) SHALL NEVER NEVER NEVER PERISH.

OK, Jesus didn't say the word "never" 3 times. I did, to make a point.

I recommend that you quit kicking against the goads.
 
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TibiasDad

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I understand and am in lockstep with you all the way! Christ himself is the foundation of everything; everything else is just detailed expressions of the whole.

Doug
 
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TibiasDad

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If that's what you learned in your Greek classes, your Greek teacher is a fraud. Your 3.5 gpa is worthless.

Now this is an ad hominem fallacy! And disrespectful of my teacher. Dr. Lovell is one of the most saintly and learned men I have ever know, and I do not appreciate your hubris concerning someone you never knew! He never used an English text, always read from his Greek text when preaching, teaching, or even just reading devotionally.
You sir, have shown your character and conscience and I bid you adieu!

Doug
 
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FreeGrace2

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Now this is an ad hominem fallacy! And disrespectful of my teacher.
I stand by my words. Your understanding of the Greek present tense is AWFUL.

Dr. Lovell is one of the most saintly and learned men I have ever know, and I do not appreciate your hubris concerning someone you never knew!
Having interacted with one of his students gave me my view.

He never used an English text, always read from his Greek text when preaching, teaching, or even just reading devotionally.
This is all that I said in reference to your Greek teacher:
"I see what you are trying to do. You are still trying to FORCE the poor little present tense to mean that one MUST CONTINUE to believe in order to continue to be saved.

If that's what you learned in your Greek classes, your Greek teacher is a fraud. Your 3.5 gpa is worthless."

You STILL have not proven your view about the present tense. All you do is make claims about what the present tense means. But you can't prove it.

This is the statement that I responded to about your Greek teacher:
"Indicative statements, however, are not so hamstrung. They can use any of the tenses, and the tenses then, in my opinion, hold even more nuanced meaning. If God is indicatively said to save present tense believing people, then present tense believing is a requirement for any present tense act of saving."

And, it's WRONG.

You sir, have shown your character and conscience and I bid you adieu!
Doug
That's it, Doug. Quit while you're behind. You can't prove your thesis and you know you are in a corner.

One thing is clear; your knowledge of the Greek present tense isn't accurate.

Neither you nor GDL have supported your claims.
 
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GDL

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FWIW to whoever:

I have been trained in the excerpted instruction below (and still refer to it and other sources extensively) & IMO Doug has also received such training, but it's beyond obvious that FG2 does not know or understand it this information. I post this for whoever else might be reading the nonsense and attacking accusations of FG2, who, IMO should be summarily ignored for his/her continuous false statements, personal attacks, eisegesis, infantile tactics, and so on. If anyone is in the Free Grace Interpretation Camp, there are much better and more decent proponents of that system.

The following is copied from Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics by Daniel Wallace. I have highlighted in bold & underlines some of the points made re: the classification of the Greek Present Tense speaking of continuous action. The bold blue underlined text is my insertion. The opening table of contents show the many ways a Greek present tense can be interpreted & the instruction that follows discusses the many nuances of verb tense that must be taken into consideration when translating & interpreting.

Of special note pertaining to all the discussion that has gone on re: continuous belief & eternal security, please see Wallace's take on John 3:16 below. Also, in proper humility (unlike the substantial lack of humility shown by FG2), knowing how difficult it is to accurately interpret all the nuances of the Greek language and its usage in the Biblical Text, please note how Wallace with his obvious extensive work in the language & the Text still uses words like "seems," when discussing interpretation of John's Gospel.

Wallace obliterates FG2's unlearned & biased attempts to discredit Doug's efforts to discuss a differing view than FG2's re: the nuances of the Greek present tense. The only customary retorts offered by FG2 to such textbook information or sourcing, is to evade, or to blurt that any credentialed source that doesn't agree with him/her, is a Calvinist, or some other camp related, or other type label that suits him/her. Such lowly discrediting attempts only discredit FG2.

So, with Doug who has had Greek training, with my having been trained in Greek, and with Wallace who wrote a textbook on Greek, all saying how FG2 is wrong re: what the Greek Present Tense can mean, 2 witnesses outside myself is more than enough for me. FG2 should not be trusted. Even if/when he/she makes a correct point here or there, the bulk of his/her input is simply doctrinal eisegesis done disrespectfully, which makes it impossible to deal on any specific verse objectively.


EXCERPT FROM GREEK GRAMMAR BEYOND THE BASICS

The Present Tense

Overview of Uses

I. Narrow-Band Presents 516

► A. Instantaneous Present (a.k.a. Aoristic or Punctiliar Present) 517

► B. Progressive Present (a.k.a. Descriptive Present) 518

II. Broad-Band Presents 519

A. Extending-From-Past Present 519

► B. Iterative Present 520

► C. Customary (Habitual or General) Present 521

► D. Gnomic Present 523

III. Special Uses of the Present 526

► A. Historical Present (Dramatic Present) 526

B. Perfective Present 532

C. Conative (Tendential, Voluntative) Present 534

1. In Progress, but not Complete (True Conative) 534

2. Not Begun, but About/Desired to be Attempted (Voluntative/Tendential) 535

► D. Futuristic Present 535

1. Completely Futuristic 536

2. Mostly Futuristic (Ingressive-Futuristic?) 537

► E. Present Retained in Indirect Discourse 537


Select Bibliography

BDF, 167-69, 172, 174 (§319-24, 335-36, 338-39); Burton, Moods and Tenses, 7-11, 46, 54-55 (§8-20, 96-97, 119-131); Fanning, Verbal Aspect, 198-240, 325-413; K. L. McKay, A New Syntax of the Verb in New Testament Greek: An Aspectual Approach (New York: Peter Lang, 1994) 39-42; idem, “Time and Aspect in New Testament Greek,” NovT 34 (1992) 209-28; Moule, Idiom Book, 7-8; Porter, Verbal Aspect, 163-244, 321-401; idem, Idioms, 28-33; Robertson, Grammar, 879-92; Turner, Syntax, 60-64, 74-81; Young, Intermediate Greek, 107-13.


514
Introduction: The Basic Meaning


Aspect

With reference to aspect, the present tense is internal (that is, it portrays the action from the inside of the event, without special regard for beginning or end), but it makes no comment as to fulfillment (or completion). The present tense’s portrayal of an event “focuses on its development or progress and sees the occurrence in regard to its internal make-up, without beginning or end in view.”1 It is sometimes called progressive: It “basically represents an activity as in process (or in progress).”2


Time

With reference to time, the present indicative is usually present time, but it may be other than or broader than the present time on occasion (e.g., with historical present and gnomic present respectively).


Aspect + Time (The Unaffected Meaning)

What is fundamental to keep in mind as you examine each of the tenses is the difference between the unaffected meaning and the affected meaning and how they relate to each other. Part of this difference is between aspect and Aktionsart. (The other part has to do with the temporal element of tense [restricted to the indicative mood].) Together, aspect and time constitute the “ontological meaning” or unaffected meaning of a given tense in the indicative. In this case, it is the meaning the present tense would have if we could see such a tense in a vacuum–without context, without a lexical intrusion from the verb, and without other grammatical features (either in the verb itself or in some other word in the sentence that is impacting the tense). In other words, the unaffected meaning of the present tense is its basic idea. However, this unaffected meaning is only theoretical. No one has ever observed it for any of the tenses, simply because we cannot observe a tense that is not attached to a verb (which has lexical value): -ω is a morpheme, while πιστεύω is a present tense verb. The unaffected meaning, then, is something that has been extrapolated from actual usage.

By analogy, we say that contract verb stems end in either alpha, epsilon, or omicron. Yet you will not find ἀγαπάω, φιλέω, or πληρόω in their uncontracted state

515
in the NT.3 We extrapolate such uncontracted forms on the basis of observed patterns of behavior. This is similar to our descriptions of the basic idea of the tenses.

What is the value of having such a theoretical knowledge of the tenses? It helps us in at least two ways. (We will illustrate its value by applying this discussion to the historical present.)

1) Since the affected meanings are what we call “Specific Uses,” the more we know how the tense is affected, the more certain we can be of its usage in a given passage. The three intrusions mentioned above (lexical, contextual, grammatical) are the staple things that make up affected meanings. The more we analyze such intrusions, the better we can predict when a given tense (or case or voice or any other morpho-syntactic element of the language) will fit into a particular category of usage. For example, all undisputed examples of the historical present occur in the indicative mood (a grammatical intrusion), in the third person (a grammatical intrusion), and in narrative literature (contextual intrusion). Further, they only occur with certain kinds of verbs (lexical intrusion).

Thus if you wanted to identify a particular present tense as a historical present, you would want to check it against the various features of other known historical presents. It would not do simply to want a particular present tense to be a historical present. In order to so label it you would have to find sufficient semantic parallels4 between the present tense in question and known historical presents. Lacking such parallels (especially if they are well defined as with the historical present), you would be hard pressed to call the present tense in question a historical present. Some think that the first person present tense verb, εἰμί, in John 8:58 is a historical present. But since all undisputed historical presents are third person, and since none involve the equative verb, this is rather doubtful.5

2) It is important to understand that the unaffected meaning can be overridden–to some degree but not entirely–by the intrusions. That is to say, it is not correct to say that the unaffected meaning will always be present in full force in any given context. The unaffected meaning is not, therefore, the lowest common denominator of the tense uses. But neither will it be completely abandoned. An author

516
chooses his particular tense for a reason, just as he chooses his mood, lexical root, etc. All of these contribute to the meaning he wishes to express. They are all, as it were, vying for control. Again, take the historical present as an example. An author uses the present tense in narrative for some reason. The options are really quite simple: either for its aspect or for its time. Most scholars are of the opinion that the aspect of the historical present is no different from an aorist’s. If that is so, then an author has chosen the present tense for its temporal significance. The author does not use the historical present to indicate real time, of course, but for dramatic effect–for the sake of vividness.6

In sum, it is imperative that one pay close attention to the various influences affecting the meaning of the tense. All of these influences, in combination with the present tense, contribute to the specific category of usage under question.7


Specific Uses

The specific uses of the present tense can be categorized into three large groups: narrow-band presents, broad-band presents, and special uses. “Narrow band” means that the action is portrayed as occurring over a relatively short interval; “broad band” means that the action is portrayed as occurring over a longer interval; “special uses” include instances that do not fit into the above categories, especially those involving a time frame that is other than the present.8

Instruction re: use of the Present Tense to describe a continuous condition


► C. Customary (Habitual or General) Present

1. Definition

The customary present is used to signal either an action that regularly occurs or an ongoing state.20 The action is usually iterative, or repeated, but not without interruption. This usage is quite common.

The difference between the customary (proper) and the iterative present is mild. Generally, however, it can be said that the customary present is broader in its idea of the “present” time and describes an event that occurs regularly. The customary present is an iterative present with the temporal ends “kicked out.”

522
There are two types of customary present, repeated action and ongoing state. The stative present is more pronounced in its temporal restrictions than the customary present or the gnomic present.

2. Key to Identification: customarily, habitually, continually

The two types of customary present are lexically determined: One is repeated action (habitual present [customarily, habitually]), while the other is ongoing state (stative present [continually]).


Chart 52 - The Force of the Customary Present

3. Illustrations

a. Clear Examples

Luke 18:12

νηστεύω δὶς τοῦ σαββάτου


I [customarily] fast twice a week


John 3:16

πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται

everyone who [continually] believes in him should not perish


This could also be taken as a gnomic present, but if so it is not a proverbial statement, nor is it simply a general maxim. In this Gospel, there seems to be a qualitative distinction between the ongoing act of believing and the simple fact of believing.

John 14:17

παρ᾽ ὑμῖν μένει καὶ ἐν ὑμῖν ἔσται


he continually remains with you and he shall be in you

1 Cor 11:26

ὁσάκις γὰρ ἐὰν ἐσθίητε τὸν ἄρτον τοῦτον καὶ τὸ ποτήριον πίνητε, τὸν θάνατον τοῦ κυρίου καταγγέλλετε ἄχρι οὗ ἔλθῃ.



For as often as you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the Lord’s death until he comes.

Heb 10:25

μὴ ἐγκαταλείποντες τὴν ἐπισυναγωγὴν ἑαυτῶν, καθὼς ἔθος τισίν21



not [habitually] forsaking our assembly, as is the habit of some
 
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FreeGrace2

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I have the SAME Greek grammar text that GDL quotes from, and yet he has the arrogance to claim tht I don't "know or understand this information". I guess GDL thinks he is omniscience or something. Sounds like a complex of some kind.

I've asked those who disagre with me to provide specific instances of such 'false statements, personal attacks, eisegesis, infantile tactics, and so on'. Has anyone done this? Not even GDL has done this. All he and the others have done is to throw out these idiotic charges without ANY evidence. It's all just made up junk. They have no defense for their own opinions, not even from the Bible.

The following is copied from Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics by Daniel Wallace.
This is the text that I get ALL of my information regarding Greek grammar.

I have highlighted in bold & underlines some of the points made re: the classification of the Greek Present Tense speaking of continuous action.
Here's what neither GDL or Doug seem to grasp about the continuous action of the present tense.

An example. One can speak of a football game IN PROGRESS. That would be the present tense. But that doesn't mean the game goes on indefinitely.

Furthermore, the really important point that they just do not seem to grasp is that any result of a present tense action requires the action to continue

This is how they view salvation. Only if the believer continues to believe will they be saved. But the aorist tense used as well proves them both wrong. Once saved, which is on the basis of WHEN a person puts their faith in Christ, FROM THAT POINT FORWARD, they ARE saved, they ARE sealed, they ARE justified, they ARE a new creation, they ARE in Christ, and they ARE a child of God.

Not ANY of these things have been described in the Bible as requiring continuous action of anything to maintain their status. But GDL and Doug think they do. Because they STILL do not understand the Greek present.

Of special note pertaining to all the discussion that has gone on re: continuous belief & eternal security, please see Wallace's take on John 3:16 below.
Even scholars get thinks wrong. And most scholars have disagreements among themselves. But apparently neither GDL or Doug seem to know that.

Nice list, but it proves nothing other than GDL can copy words.

Ditto here.

Still nothing that proves the claim of GDL or Doug. Or proves me wrong.

Time
With reference to time, the present indicative is usually present time, but it may be other than or broader than the present time on occasion (e.g., with historical present and gnomic present respectively).
Ditto again.

Ditto.

chooses his particular tense for a reason, just as he chooses his mood, lexical root, etc.
Wow. How interesting, that authors actually use a "reason" for choosing mood, lexical root, etc. Who knew? lol

Yet, there is nothing said about the results of a present tense action are dependent upon the present tense continuing.

I've already noted how a continuous present tense works.

This needs to be explained. As is, it is just some claim or even opinion. If there is any real difference, it needs to be shown what that difference is. Note that Wallace wrote: "there seems to be...". So he wasn't stating any fact, but his opinion of things.

If "continual belief" is what saves, then Paul's answer to the jailer was WRONG.
 
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For those who are following this thread:

Both GDL and Doug are pushing a theology that saving faith is a continuous faith. iow, if one believes in Christ, and then at a later time abandons the faith, they will end up perishing in the lake of fire.

They based this theory on the "continuous present" tense in the Greek in John 3:16. So, basically, the idea is that a continuous present action demands that any result of such action continues ONLY AS LONG as the faith is present tense.

If that were true, the Bible would and could NEVER use the aorist tense in regard to salvation. Yet, it does.

Acts 16:31 - They replied, “Believe (aorist indicative tense) in the Lord Jesus, and you will be (future tense) saved—you and your household.”

Rom 10:9 - If you declare with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe (aorist indicative tense) in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be (future tense) saved.

The aorist tense is generally a past tense verb. Technically, in the indicative, the aorist usuallhy indicates past time. Outside the indicative, time is bit a feature of the aorist.

Therefore, if GDL's and Doug's theory was correct, the aorist could never be used in reference to believing for salvation.

The fact that the aorist tense IS used in reference to salvation, proves that their theory is only that; a theory.
 
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Actually, to keep the record accurate:

I don't rely on the present tense verb for my opinions about continuing Faith being necessary for Biblical Salvation. I posted textbook information on the present tense to disprove incorrect statements re: the present tense made by FG2 during this discussion. If anything, I back up into the present tense in many cases based upon other factors like:

1) Commands to abide, which means to remain/stay attached to Christ & our Father.
2) Warnings on things like being thrown into fire & being burned up like unproductive refuse if don't abide.
3) Instruction on endurance
4) Warnings against falling away & the last state being worse than the first state before we believed.
5) The fact that Faith & Obedience are 2 sides of the same coin & purported belief in Christ thus being a farce if one does not obey Christ & our Father
6) Paul's writing to Titus saying that one who professes to know God, but who also denies Him in works is disgusting.
7) The fact that Salvation in the Bible is detailed as a Process that has a beginning & an ongoing process to reach an end and the fact that Paul speaks of those not in this process as enemies of the Cross of Christ.
8) The fact that the Text tells us that the Gospel must be believed & obeyed, and that Salvation is for those who believe and obey Christ.
9) The fact that "Christ" is a title denoting the highest of authority and therefore there is no circumstance under which one who believes Jesus is the Christ can ultimately walk away from obeying Him.
10) et.al.

Things like these have led me to see the reality of the Scripture telling us that there is a big problem with those who supposedly believe (with belief in Free Grace theology being overly simplified and undefined) once and no matter how they live, or if they fall away, or walk away from The Faith: (1) were ever in The Faith, or; (2) claim any ongoing sense that they are being saved, or were saved.

Free Graces answer to all of these who walk away is (1) they will just be disciplined even to temporal death, but still be saved; (2) they will lose rewards. My sense after much personal study, beyond being taught in a theological camp, is that the ramifications are greater than these and that the warnings make this abundantly clear.

Since translating & interpreting verb tenses is actually difficult and interpretational, I do not rely strictly on tenses, but on the counsel of the entire Text and on the fact that it tells us that God is both kind and severe. I no longer side with the overly simplistic once saved always saved interpretation I was schooled under. And I have come to see the Free Grace interpretation as leaving a very detrimental mindset re: The Faith.

FG2 has misrepresented what a present tense verb can mean - it most certainly can mean a continuous condition. There's no point in getting into any other Greek grammar with him/her. I leave this discussion because FG2 will resort to anything to purport to have won an argument. It's clear to some of us that this is the case. There are more productive uses of time.
 
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