Teaching 1 John Sunday School Class

[BBgrey]

Hello all.

I am teaching a 5-week study of 1 John in my Sunday School class and would like some input from any of you who are willing. I taught the first chapter last week and included backgound information on authorship and some cultural influences of the day.

Now I'm working on the second chapter, and I've been struggling with how to deal with some of John's teachings. in the second chapter (as well as other places), John gives some qualifiers that are pretty extreme (imo).

Here is an example from chapter 2:

"3We know that we have come to know him if we obey his commands. 4The man who says, "I know him," but does not do what he commands is a liar, and the truth is not in him. 5But if anyone obeys his word, God's love[b] is truly made complete in him. This is how we know we are in him: 6Whoever claims to live in him must walk as Jesus did."

Here is an example from chapter 3:

"4Everyone who sins breaks the law; in fact, sin is lawlessness. 5But you know that he appeared so that he might take away our sins. And in him is no sin. 6No one who lives in him keeps on sinning. No one who continues to sin has either seen him or known him. 7Dear children, do not let anyone lead you astray. He who does what is right is righteous, just as he is righteous. 8He who does what is sinful is of the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil's work. 9No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God's seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God. 10This is how we know who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are: Anyone who does not do what is right is not a child of God; nor is anyone who does not love his brother."


Please share your insights with me concerning these passages (or others from 1 John). My natural inclination is to believe he's talking about habitual sin because that seems more achievable, but I'm not so sure about this. What does John really mean here? What are the natural implications of this passage for the church? for a person's relationship with God? for a person's salvation?



Any thoughts would be welcome.


BBgrey

 

[Morghaine]

I agree, I think these verses that you quoted are really about the same thing - habitual sin. In other words, the hypocritical Christian - someone who claims to follow Christ, then goes out and drinks and drives, or does drugs or beats their spouse or shows hatred to others. You can't follow Christ and continuously do bad things. Sure we all make mistakes and sin, but I think that the true Christian will repent, and attempt not to do the same. Hopefully that made some sort of sense.

I'm glad you brought this up, I'm going to reread 1 John! Thanks!

 

[Dmckay]

Habitual sin is one way to describe it. Perhaps a more accurate way of translating it is having a life that is more characterized by sin then by spirituality. An individual who is not actually a Christian can "Fake it" and get away with it for a while, but their true nature will eventually come to the fore. If a person is actually a child of G-d that new nature is going to characterize their life more than the world. A believer who sins has trouble living with themselves, unless their conscience has been terrible seared by continually rejecting the leading of the Holy Spirit.
A person who isn't truely a believer is not going to have problems living with their sin, so they feel more free to continue in that lifestyle.

By their fruit ye shall know them.

 

[WAB]

Hello all.

I am teaching a 5-week study of 1 John in my Sunday School class and would like some input from any of you who are willing. I taught the first chapter last week and included backgound information on authorship and some cultural influences of the day.

Now I'm working on the second chapter, and I've been struggling with how to deal with some of John's teachings. in the second chapter (as well as other places), John gives some qualifiers that are pretty extreme (imo).

Here is an example from chapter 2:

"3We know that we have come to know him if we obey his commands. 4The man who says, "I know him," but does not do what he commands is a liar, and the truth is not in him. 5But if anyone obeys his word, God's love[b] is truly made complete in him. This is how we know we are in him: 6Whoever claims to live in him must walk as Jesus did."

Here is an example from chapter 3:

"4Everyone who sins breaks the law; in fact, sin is lawlessness. 5But you know that he appeared so that he might take away our sins. And in him is no sin. 6No one who lives in him keeps on sinning. No one who continues to sin has either seen him or known him. 7Dear children, do not let anyone lead you astray. He who does what is right is righteous, just as he is righteous. 8He who does what is sinful is of the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil's work. 9No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God's seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God. 10This is how we know who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are: Anyone who does not do what is right is not a child of God; nor is anyone who does not love his brother."


Please share your insights with me concerning these passages (or others from 1 John). My natural inclination is to believe he's talking about habitual sin because that seems more achievable, but I'm not so sure about this. What does John really mean here? What are the natural implications of this passage for the church? for a person's relationship with God? for a person's salvation?



Any thoughts would be welcome.


BBgrey

BBgrey... both responses given are good. Definitely, habitual sinning is referred to.

In addition, would like to point out that chap.1 shows that John includes himself as one who still has an old sin nature, and that the remedy is confession of any sin that the Holy Spirit points out. This confession is to be directly to the Lord.

Yes, James 5:16 does recommend confessing ones sins (tresspasses) to a fellow believer, so that that believer will pray for whatever specific problem is involved. But generally speaking the confession is to be directly to the Lord.

Vese 9 of chap.3 has led to some mis-understanding with the use of the word "cannot"... but again, when one realizes that John included himself as one who still has the old sin nature (in chap.1), then it is legitimate to insert the word "habitually", at least in our thinking.

It is revealing also to note that all 5 uses of the word "if" in chap.1 are in the third class condition. i.e. maybe we will, and maybe we won't (verses 6-10).