Does anybody know the primarily Jewish historical view of the difference between books found in the Hebrew Tanakh as compared to the Greek Septuagint?
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Originally posted by Wolseley
You might try doing a web search on "Council of Jamnia" and see what comes up.![]()
Originally posted by Br. Max
live for: they rejected those books mainly because they were frequently used to support Christian teachings by early Christians. *shrug* Scripture or not - they have a great deal of value as historic documents in that they proclaim what was believed by the Jews at the time of Christ.![]()
Originally posted by Wolseley
"Tainted with Catholicism". Nice.
Originally posted by Br. Max
The Septuagint was translated in Alexandria for the Jewish community there. Greek was at that time the Lingua franca of the "known world" i.e. - the Mediterranean world. The diaspora Jews all spoke Greek which is why outside of Judea the Septuagint became the standard Scriptural translation while in Judea the Aramaic was the translation of choice.
Originally posted by Br. Max
Funny though, how people will us the dead sea scrolls as evidence of the orthodox of a canon forgetting that the sect that left that cache of manuscripts was a HERETICAL sect!! lol
Originally posted by VOW
I thought the gnostic stuff was quasi-New Testament...
And there are instances of the Deuteros being quoted or paraphrased in the NT canon, indicating that the Jesus and the Apostles had access to those books as well.
Peace,
~VOW
Originally posted by Br. Max
live4: good.Are you aware, that every NT quotation of OT passages are word for word from the septuigint? This fact speaks volumes for the accpetability of these entire text by the apostolic fathers and the apostles
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