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Speak lovingly of Mary

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Qoheleth

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Ive put my literal .02 in, not much more. I made a comment concerning modesty in language and had a request which I assume will either not be granted or met with conditions.

oh well


My point is that the bolded below is crass and unneeded and simply goes to far...maybe you think it is.






Q
 
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CaliforniaJosiah

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You said I stated the dogma is wrong and I've been attacking it. I said I have done neither. Interesting (and relevant) how you could not find a single post of mine where I called it wrong, declared it heresy or even questioned it. But, to be honest, I don't think you are reading my posts at all.






.... as I said, just page after page after page after page of evasion and diversion, never responding to what I'm posting.






... like I said, all we're getting after over 160 pages of posts is a refusal to discuss the topic. Evasions, diversions....






You keep forgetting: I don't have a position on how often Mary had sex (if at all) after Jesus was born. Your constant, "Well, PROVE your position!" is just more evasion and an attempt to "turn the tables" when you and I both know that it's the one holding the position that has the "burden of proof."

And you keep forgetting that it's the RCC that INSISTS that substantiation is needed OR IT'S A SIN to spread the story, and if one is sinning against someone it's hard for me to accept that therefore they are being distinctively LOVING toward them - the issue of this thread that our Catholic friend WarriorAngel created this thread to discuss. Now, I know you are not Catholic and so maybe you think that spreading rumors about someone regarding their sex practices with their spouse isn't sinful and is distinctively loving - regardless of substantiation (I TRIED for several posts to find out if this is your position or that of the EO but, well, as so often, you completely ignored my question). Thus, not knowing your position in that regard, I've continue to address the RCC position which is stated in the Catholic Catechism.














.
 
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Philothei

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It bolsters your pathetic "Sola Scriptura isn't in the bible" argument

I am not sure what you refer to here? What is pathetic? Your being cornered I am afraid.. At least I can support my dogma with historical facts that date back to the 1st and 2nd century texts....while you deny to even discuss it...
 
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The content of the tradition presented only substantiates that the rumor was believed. The reasons presented for believing it are vague & highly speculative as well as in part, contrary to scripture.


The content of tradition presented only substantiates that the rumor that the NT is composed of authentic apostolic writings, and that the later copies of the NT writings is accurate, was and is believed.

To wit: you claim a "rumor" cannot be substantiated by a "rumored" to be authentic (but just as likely spurious) text per your "rumored to be valid" interpretive method and praxis.
 
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CaliforniaJosiah

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I'm wondering if you read what I post...


I have NOT stated that it's unsubstantied. I've not stated that it's heresy. I have NOT even stated that I think it's wrong. ONCE AGAIN, HERE IS WHAT I'VE STATED (please read it):



1) WHY is THIS issue SO important so as to be dogma?
WHY is it an issue of highest importance that all the world's 6.5 billion of all ages knows exactly how often Mary and Joseph had sex after Jesus was born (if at all) and to the point of this thread, WHY is the spreading of this information distinctively LOVING toward her (the point of this thread) and a matter of such importance that is is DOGMA that must be believed or one is a heretic and their salvation in question? WHY is the frequency of loving, mutual, shared, marital intimacies SO critically important to the very highest possible level of all knowledge and belief? It is the sole subject of the dogma, and it is dogma in the RCC. Now, as I've posted, I'd be willing to chuck this all up to a severe conflict in values if all the Catholics here were posting how often they have sex with their spouse and INSISTING (to the level of dogma) that is it critically important that all the world know this information, that it is distinctively LOVING to them for this information to be dogmatically communicated to all the world's people, and that if one denies this - they are a heretic and their salvation is questionable. But (and this seems relevant to me), not only have none done so but I think there MIGHT even be an unstated slight offense that the subject would even be brought up (at all - much less as dogma, much less as a matter ALL MUST know and believe or they are heretics). IF (and I doubt the this condition is the case), IF they are offended by the very thought of me sharing with the whole world how often they have sex (or not), THEN they would at least BEGIN to understand my point.


Now, as I've posted, IF we were discussing if alchemy's central point of transubstantiation should be regarded as dogma or if we were discussing whether Mary had brown or black hair or if we were discussing how many angels can fit on the head of a pin - I suppose I wouldn't be TOO concerned. But we're talking about the sex life of my Mother. The entirely moot, intensively private, extremely personal, intimacies of my Mother - Our Blessed Lady. I love, adore, revere and in a sense worship Her. I love Her far more than my own mother or sister here. Now, if after my parents have died, you started a website and insisted on telling all the world's population (including kids) that my mother had sex 1.0 times per week on average and always in the "missionary position" - I'd have EXACTLY THE SAME ISSUES (only to a much, much less degree because I don't love my mother as much as I love Mary). I'd want to know WHY you are spreading this about my mother, WHY you regard THIS as a matter of highest importance and to deny such is to be a heretic and salvation is questionable, why THIS issue? AND I'd want to know how do you know this? I lived at home for 16 years and I don't know how often my parents have sex or how they do (and, to address the first issue, I honestly don't regard it as many of our business - much less DOGMA).


Let me TRY YET AGAIN to address it this way: I'm not married, but I have a hunch that many married couples regard what they do in bed to be private and a matter between the two of them. They do not regard such issues to be matters of public DOGMA - issues of highest importance for all the world's 6.5 billion people (including kids) to know and if they deny such they are heretics and their salvation is in question. Do you suspect I'm right about that? IN FACT (again, a hunch), I suspect that SOME (maybe not a large percentage) would even regard the mention of such (much less DOGMATIC INSISTENCE FOR ALL 6.5 BILLION PEOPLE) - even if true - to be none of our business and perhaps even offensive or embarrassing or painful. Do you think I might be right about that? IF SO, then why are the world's 1.0 billion Catholics CERTAIN TO THE LEVEL OF DOGMA that Mary has the exact OPPOSITION feeling about all this? Why they regard it as none of my business how often they have sex or when or how with their spouse, maybe even offended that I regard it as DOGMA, but they are certain to the very highest level possible that Mary is honored by it AND regards it as DISTINCTIVELY LOVING toward her (the issue of this thread)?



2) Not me, but the CATHOLIC CHURCH insists that it is a SIN (the RCC's term, not mine) to spread a report or story which is not substantiated. The issue is NOT if those spreading the story think it's true. The isssue is NOT if lots believe the story or have for a long time. The issue, ACCORDING TO THE CATHOLIC CHURCH (NOT ME!) is substantiation. If it's not substantiated, it's SIN to speak of it. If it's sin toward the person, is it also LOVING toward them? (the issue of this thread). Now, we all know that all those spreading this report about Mary and Joseph never having had sex is believed by those spreading it - but that's not the issue. We all know that many (if not virtually all) Christians from the 5th century until fairly recently believed the thing true - but that's not the issue. ACCORDING TO THE CATHOLIC CHURCH (NOT ME!) the issue is singular: it's a SIN (and thus not loving) unless it is SUBSTANTIATED. Thus, I've raised the issue of substantiation. To the level of dogma. Of a nature the RCC itself accepts as valid from others.


Please read point # 1 and #2 above. Please read it.
I'd appreciate it if, at long last, you respond to such.
But if you desire not to, that's respected.





How fruitful can a conversation be with someone who introduces and dismisses standards at will ?
As I've posted MANY times now, I will accept ANYTHING (please note this word) that the RCC itself accepts as valid when others use it. I don't know how to be more generous, fair and how to bend over more to make things easier for Catholics. IF this is dogma - a matter of highest certainty - it must be a matter of easiest substantiation, and since the RCC says it's a SIN (not loving - the issue of this thread) to spread something (not just a DOGMA!!!!!), then the RCC has established the issue (NOT ME) and that issue is singular: Is it substantiated? Again, I'll accept ANY substantiation that the RCC accepts as valid for a dogma when others use it. The RCC NEVER permits this from a Protestant but I'm "doing unto others as I'd like them to do for me" not as the RCC has done to us.

Now, we all know that the RCC's position is that it's substantiated because the one spreading the report says it is - however, this is not something it accepts as valid. If I said the Pope is a woman, and I believe it is true (DOGMATICALLY) and that all the world's 6.5 billion MUST know this and if they deny it they are a heretic and their salvation is questionable, I have a hunch (that's all) that Catholics and the RCC will not accept that as substantiation for the story. Do you think I'm right about that? When the Mormon says that Joseph Smith found those plates and spread that (it's not dogma in the LDS, btw), does the RCC accept that as dogma because those spreading the report say it's true? Look, it's rare for someone to spread a story and preface it with, "What I'm about to say is false..." So, this "but those sharing this story since the 5th Century say it's true" is not a substantiation the RCC regards as valid, thus we must not either.


Now, perhaps you'd like to address the two points I've been making for over 160 pages now....





The topic is, in reality, your world view (one standard for you, another standard for those you disagree with).
Well, IMHO, the RCC does have two standards: one for itself (if I say it, it's true) and another for everyone else (if you say it, it's false unless you are quoting me). But that's not the issue of this thread, it's not my point, and it's not a permitted subject for this forum. I've never yet met a Catholic who stated, "OSAS is true if a Calvinist Denomination says it is." But rather than these constant diversions, do you desire to address the two issues I've raise - or not?






.

 
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Philothei

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I have NOT stated that it's unsubstantied. I've not stated that it's heresy. I have NOT even stated that I think it's wrong. ONCE AGAIN, HERE IS WHAT I'VE STATED (please read it):


Post #1506



I have NEVER REMOTELY EVEN SUGGESTED that the DOGMA in the RCC is wrong. And I certainly never attacked it.


Post #1516


Yeah? But I did... plus there are many other posts I do not have the time to go over...
 
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CaliforniaJosiah

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The RCC demands it - for without it, we have a SIN.
SINNING against the person.
I don't regard SINNING against a person distinctively LOVING them (the issue of this thread).







None have been offered.







The RCC does and it's their dogma.







Please read what I posted. You quoted it, now read it.







.
 
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I'm wondering if you read what I post...

I have NOT stated that it's unsubstantied. I've not stated that it's heresy. I have NOT even stated that I think it's wrong. ONCE AGAIN, HERE IS WHAT I'VE STATED (please read it):


But that's not substantiation for the late rumors about her - eventually made dogmas by the Catholic Denomination.



Thank you!


Pax


- Josiah


PS Good to be back chatting with you!

.

I have been reading:

in the cited post, you refer to RC dogma as " late rumors about her - eventually made dogma".
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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CaliforniaJosiah

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I have been reading:

in the cited post, you refer to RC dogma as " late rumors about her - eventually made dogma".


Too bad you are continuing to ignore the two points I keep raising...



My view is that the report is late. That doesn't make it wrong, but I think the comment is valid. IF it was first stated in 1976 that the Declaration of Independence was written in German, I think we'd agree that this is a late report since it comes some 200 years after the event. For 200 years, there's no evidence of anyone stating that it was written in German. IT would be regarded as a late report. Indeed, no one remotely involved in that document stated that (or even anyone who knew anyone who was). So, if it is stated in 300 AD that Mary never had sexual intercourse, we'd have a report some 200 years after her death (at least). I've asked for the earliest report of this sexual issue, but while nearly all have ignored that request, we have seen several things from the late 4th century - some 300 years after her death. One revealed the Liturgy of St. James but the date of that is HIGHLY disputed and MOST scholars date it centuries after the death of Mary, so that doesn't work. It is entirely unrelated to whether it is true, of course. And yes, the RCC did make it dogma. Evidently, the EO never has but it is regarded as doctrine there (so one EO has explained in one of the threads on this).





ONCE AGAIN, HERE IS WHAT I'VE STATED:


1) WHY is THIS issue SO important so as to be dogma?
WHY is it an issue of highest importance that all the world's 6.5 billion of all ages knows exactly how often Mary and Joseph had sex after Jesus was born (if at all) and to the point of this thread, WHY is the spreading of this information distinctively LOVING toward her (the point of this thread) and a matter of such importance that is is DOGMA that must be believed or one is a heretic and their salvation in question? WHY is the frequency of loving, mutual, shared, marital intimacies SO critically important to the very highest possible level of all knowledge and belief? It is the sole subject of the dogma, and it is dogma in the RCC. Now, as I've posted, I'd be willing to chuck this all up to a severe conflict in values if all the Catholics here were posting how often they have sex with their spouse and INSISTING (to the level of dogma) that is it critically important that all the world know this information, that it is distinctively LOVING to them for this information to be dogmatically communicated to all the world's people, and that if one denies this - they are a heretic and their salvation is questionable. But (and this seems relevant to me), not only have none done so but I think there MIGHT even be an unstated slight offense that the subject would even be brought up (at all - much less as dogma, much less as a matter ALL MUST know and believe or they are heretics). IF (and I doubt the this condition is the case), IF they are offended by the very thought of me sharing with the whole world how often they have sex (or not), THEN they would at least BEGIN to understand my question (although it seems, none do).


Now, as I've posted, IF we were discussing if alchemy's central point of transubstantiation should be regarded as dogma or if we were discussing whether Mary had brown or black hair or if we were discussing how many angels can fit on the head of a pin - I suppose I wouldn't be TOO concerned. But we're talking about the sex life of my Mother. The entirely moot, intensively private, extremely personal, intimacies of my Mother - Our Blessed Lady. I love, adore, revere and in a sense worship Her. I love Her far more than my own mother or sister here. Now, if after my parents have died, you started a website and insisted on telling all the world's population (including kids) that my mother had sex 1.0 times per week on average and always in the "missionary position" - I'd have EXACTLY THE SAME ISSUES (only to a much, much less degree because I don't love my mother as much as I love Mary). I'd want to know WHY you are spreading this about my mother, WHY you regard THIS as a matter of highest importance and to deny such is to be a heretic and salvation is questionable, why THIS issue? AND I'd want to know how do you know this? I lived at home for 16 years and I don't know how often my parents have sex or how they do (and, to address the first issue, I honestly don't regard it as many of our business - much less DOGMA).


Let me TRY YET AGAIN to address it this way: I'm not married, but I have a hunch that many married couples regard what they do in bed to be private and a matter between the two of them. They do not regard such issues to be matters of public DOGMA - issues of highest importance for all the world's 6.5 billion people (including kids) to know and if they deny such they are heretics and their salvation is in question. Do you suspect I'm right about that? IN FACT (again, a hunch), I suspect that SOME (maybe not a large percentage) would even regard the mention of such (much less DOGMATIC INSISTENCE FOR ALL 6.5 BILLION PEOPLE) - even if true - to be none of our business and perhaps even offensive or embarrassing or painful. Do you think I might be right about that? IF SO, then why are the world's 1.0 billion Catholics CERTAIN TO THE LEVEL OF DOGMA that Mary has the exact OPPOSITE feeling about all this? Why they regard it as none of my business how often they have sex or when or how with their spouse, maybe even offended that I regard it as DOGMA, but they are certain to the very highest level possible that Mary is honored by it AND regards it as DISTINCTIVELY LOVING toward her (the issue of this thread)?



2) Not me, but the CATHOLIC CHURCH insists that it is a SIN (the RCC's term, not mine) to spread a report or story which is not substantiated. The issue is NOT if those spreading the story think it's true. The isssue is NOT if lots believe the story or have for a long time. The issue, ACCORDING TO THE CATHOLIC CHURCH (NOT ME!) is substantiation. If it's not substantiated, it's SIN to speak of it. If it's sin toward the person, is it also LOVING toward them? (the issue of this thread). Now, we all know that all those spreading this report about Mary and Joseph never having had sex is believed by those spreading it - but that's not the issue. We all know that many (if not virtually all) Christians from the 5th century until fairly recently believed the thing true - but that's not the issue. ACCORDING TO THE CATHOLIC CHURCH (NOT ME!) the issue is singular: it's a SIN (and thus not loving) unless it is SUBSTANTIATED. Thus, I've raised the issue of substantiation. To the level of dogma. Of a nature the RCC itself accepts as valid from others.



Care to respond to these two issues?



Thank you, either way.


Pax


- Josiah




.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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Philothei

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, if it is stated in 300 AD that Mary never had sexual intercourse, we'd have a report some 200 years after her death (at least).

It was never worded as you do... It was stated in hymns of praise to her personhood... No one sat down and found "evidence" to her virginity to disprove the evil rumours by gnostic writings that claim to the opposite the fathers did not bother to prove by "earthly" evidence to her ever -virginity as they thought that to be disrespectful. The Hymns of praise who call her Ever-virgin are enough to testify to her EV. The Tradition of EV was handed down to us....

AGain it would be 'disrespectfull" to "doubt" her EV and speak about it... The same that is why it is not mentioned in thebible as it was common truth and no need to speak of it out of respect.. It got in the hymns though early as it was ackowedged in worship. If it was a rumour and not "established" I doubt it would have gotten thus far and the faithful would not have protested against it...And they did not as it was a common "truth" about Theotokos. Yes the fact she was praised in Liturgy does justify it. As the same goes for the holy Trinity, the saints etc.....the angels etc. reading the bible during service so on...

For example why reading the Bible in the service? Does it say it in the Bible we should do that during the "breaking of Bread" not.....it is pure tradition ... BTW ... Many practices are found in the worship that speak volumes about dogma CJ.....


Proof please... There is no conclusive evidence I agree but majority of scholars....lol....where???

It is a Coucil's decision repeated for the million time here... I am sure..
 
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