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Speak in Tongues - essential :

Biblicist

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Because he used the word "If". They are supposed examples.
Hey, I'm still waiting to hear your explanation as to why you believe that Paul never prophesied:link Mind you, I think that I have been waiting many months for such a reply where you regularly seem to forget to explain why in your opinion you apparently believe that Paul fibbed about being able to prophesy.
 
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swordsman1

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I'm the one who used the quotation marks around the word "told". There was a reason for that which anyone not looking to belittle the idea of people hearing from the Lord in various ways can readily understand.

Not looking to belittle you. As you said they were your own words.

The word gift was used in a general manner because, as I clearly told you before, every good thing we have from the Lord is a gift of some kind.

Doesn't sound like that to me. You said your ability to speak in tongues "was the gift itself being manifested". But you are free to change your mind.

I have received an alert from the forum that you have been following me since last Tuesday. Your attitude is heading toward belligerence. I doesn't take a spiritual gift for me to see the connection.

I am not 'following' you on the forum. There is nobody in my 'follow' list, and never has been.

Neither the method of receiving nor the use of the tongues in the Book of Acts matches that of the Corinthians either.

The method of attainment of tongues in both books is exactly the same. It is a sovereign unconditional enablement by the Holy Spirit:

Acts 2:4 "they began to speak in other tongues as the Spirit enabled them."

1 Cor 12:11: "All these are the work of one and the same Spirit, and he distributes them to each one, just as he determines.


Granted they were used for different purposes. But both were 'signs' and both 'for the common good'. I take it your 'ability' is only used in public places outside church as a confirming sign?


Nor does the idea of asking by faith for the Holy Spirit as instructed by the Lord match the methods of attainment in the Book of Acts.

Faith is not a condition of obtaining tongues in either book.

Getting snarky as expected.

Not snarky. A touch of sarcasm perhaps as I find your ideas are not scripturally warranted. Please forgive me if you found it offensive.

Why would I want to do such a thing when Paul's instruction do apply and I have never said otherwise.

Because the tongues in 1 Corinthians is the 'gift of tongues' which you no longer claim to have, and so you are not obliged to follow Paul's instructions regarding the gift.

I didn't say that I had the same ability as the disciples in Acts.

You have claimed that the tongues in Acts was the 'ability' not the 'gift' of tongues, even challenging me to prove that it was the 'gift'. And you have the 'ability' not the 'gift', right?

Yes - since you asked - praying in the Spirit apparently sounds different from what was the sound made in the Book of Acts - at least at Pentecost.

Where in 1 Corinthians does it say what tongues sounded like? In the absence of any redefinition we must presume it sounded the same as Acts.

It could have been a one time ability and it could have been a gift of God which was irrevocable. It seems to be the former since it is not mentioned again in the same vein.

Yes it is. In Acts 10 & 11 the Gentiles had exactly the same tongues experience as the disciples at Pentecost. That was the only criteria the disciples gave for accepting them into the church as equals. Luke doesn't say the tongues was any different from his previous description in Acts 2, which he would have done if they were.

The gifts and the calling of God are irrevocable and yet I see temporary abilities in Acts and elsewhere.

Where does it say someones ability to speak in tongues was withdrawn?


Peter and Paul didn't have the "gift" of escaping from prison and yet they had the ability. Paul had the ability to live through a stoning. I wouldn't call it a gift though.

You are comparing apples with oranges. You are claiming there are 2 types of tongues - one a 'gift' that is governed by the theology of 1 Corinthians, the other an 'ability' which is not.

We are told to pray in the Spirit. It is done by faith and there is nowhere that that ability is called one of the gifts.

That's right we are all commanded to "pray in the Spirit on all occasions with all kinds of prayers and requests" (in our native language, not tongues).
 
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swordsman1

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Aren't we all silly bunnies, here we were for many hundreds of years presuming that Paul actually prophesied, so tell us, was Paul maybe fibbing when he tells us that he prophesies or was he maybe employing a bit of hyperbole.

Ok let's look again at that particular 'if' statement:

"If I have the gift of prophecy and can fathom all mysteries and all knowledge....but do not have love, I am nothing"

Did Paul really prophecy to the degree of fathoming ALL mysteries. ie was he omniscient? I don't think so.



Seeing as the vast majority of commentators (who are not "theologically illiterate") agree with me that neither Paul nor anyone else spoke in the tongues of angels, then I don't think it is me who is being a "silly bunny". But then such silly ideas are not uncommon among some misguided charismatic/pentecostal types where God's Word must be twisted to accommodate their unscriptural subjective experiences.
 
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Waggles

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Receive the Holy Ghost and the immediate outward evidence speaking in tongues as the spirit gives direct undefileable contact with GOD !
Getting back to basics.
Speaking in tongues as a personal prayer language is the Bible evidence of being baptized in the
Holy Spirit; that is receiving the indwelling Holy Spirit as a convert to the gospel.

Diversities of tongues and interpretation and prophesy are gifts to be used within the Spirit-filled
Church at formal worship meetings. The other six gifts are dispersed individually as needed by
saints in their day-to-day walk and are for the collective benefit and growth of the body of Christ.

Again if you are not Pentecostal and cannot pray in tongues you should cease pretending that you
have anything worthwhile to say on the OP.
No experience = no knowledge
 
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Righttruth

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Getting back to basics.
Speaking in tongues as a personal prayer language is the Bible evidence of being baptized in the
Holy Spirit; that is receiving the indwelling Holy Spirit as a convert to the gospel.

That is your presumption. All don't utter gibberish in their personal prayers.

Diversities of tongues and interpretation and prophesy are gifts to be used within the Spirit-filled
Church at formal worship meetings.

Right. That is translating a existing foreign language spoken not understood by the congregation.

The other six gifts are dispersed individually as needed by
saints in their day-to-day walk and are for the collective benefit and growth of the body of Christ.

Speaking gibberish is not a spiritual gift listed by Paul.

Again if you are not Pentecostal and cannot pray in tongues you should cease pretending that you
have anything worthwhile to say on the OP.
No experience = no knowledge

Fancy experience is not truth!
 
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pescador

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If you haven't yet spoken in tongues there is no need to belittle those of us who do. Why do you think that Paul wrote "For the one speaking in a tongue does not speak to people but to God, for no one understands; he is speaking mysteries by the Spirit."?

Speaking in tongues, "speaking mysteries by the Spirit", is a gift from God. I have received that gift and use it all the time. If you can't accept that, that is not my problem.

In Paul's letter to the church in Corinth he said, ""Love is patient, love is kind, it is not envious." I recommend that you read his writings more carefully.
 
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DamianWarS

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this all hinges on an interpretation that Acts was an a transitional period to which scripture doesn't comment on. Grudem doesn't address the words charisma/doera, nor does he do an adequate job at the terminology for the the baptism of the HS within Acts like being "filled with the HS" (Acts 2:4, 4:8, 4:31, 9:17, 13:9) or the HS "falling down" (8:16, 10:44, 11:15) and then comparing them with the same terminology used elsewhere in the NT as he did "baptism".

Grudem sweeps Acts under the 1st rug by calling it a transitional period but doesn't do due diligence for calling it such. Obviously if Acts is a transitional period than all unique elements that happens in Acts stays in Acts he however fails to value the importance of this question and presents it as common knowledge with no support.

If Acts is not a transitional period then it changes everything and we spend less time trying to superimpose 1 Cor 12 over Acts and more time reading Acts. If it is a transitional period trying to enforce Corinthians is pointless as it would be an exception to the rule and would not apply.

People spend too much time on the wrong details. Is Acts a transition period or not? answer that question and the rest is easy. Grudem does not answer the question.
 
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Marvin Knox

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Is Acts a transition period or not? answer that question and the rest is easy. Grudem does not answer the question.
Transition from what to what?

Jesus' work at Calvary was done and after the brief description in the first paragraph of His past instructions to His disciples and His returning to the Father, we are in the N.T. era in the Book of Acts.

If that be so - and it is - any other view of the receiving of the Holy Spirit than the Pentecostal/charismatic one - is teaching a works salvation in that people get saved by tarrying in certain places expecting special signs, having the hands of some special group of people laid on you, being baptized etc.

This is preaching a false gospel IMO.

Of course one could say that these were but special N.T. cases. But that is hardly comforting to those of us who assume, base on the scriptures, that we have the Holy Spirit in us from the instant we believed (or even slightly before if you are a Calvinist).
 
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Marvin Knox

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I’m trying to picture how a message in tongues in a congregation of believers would look if tongues and interpretation is only of a known language as asserted here. That – as opposed to the common Pentecostal view that the tongue is an unknown utterance given by God and in need of interpretation so that the congregation can hear it in a language they understand.

I did something like this before when I tackled this issue when the subject was new to me. I’m doing it again now because I have always believed in revisiting various doctrines occasionally from scratch to be sure I believe correctly.

The same thing can be done in the mind of course – but sometimes it helps to picture things with the use of props.

I’ve got a dozen white chips here before me on the desk to represent a congregation of one language group – English in my experiment.

I’ve got a few more odd colored chips interspersed with the white. They are black red, and green in my case and they represent what I’m saying are a visiting Frenchman and a visiting Spanish man and a visiting German. None of the four groups speak the language of the other (although I’ve also pictured it in other ways).

Why the three foreigners are sitting in a congregation enjoying a service where they don’t know the language of anyone around them – I don’t know. But then --- this experiment isn’t about picturing my position but the position of those who deny that the message and interpretation is in a special “Pentecostal” kind of language.

I’m really trying to understand the thinking of the non-unknown language folks and how things would work in real life.

Various scenarios could be pictured here including a message from the Holy Spirit coming to any person in the group for any person in the group in something like say Romanian where no one knows the language and it must be kept internal for the person hearing it from the Lord.

Why would the Holy Spirit be praying or bringing a message in Romanian knowing full well that no one but Himself could possibly understand it? Why would we be instructed to then pray to ourselves the message in Romanian which had not been for us? More to the point - why would God want us to pray to Him a message in Romanian which He had just sent intended for someone else? He thought up the message. Surely He knew what it sounded like. Throw those ideas into the mix while thinking through this situation in light of the instruction we have in Corinthians.

Who’s the message from the Holy Spirit intended for and therefore are in need of interpretation? Who receives the message? What language is it in? Who would bring the interpretation?

If a person had the gift of interpretation – why didn’t God give them the message in order that they could tell the person intended to receive the message directly without disturbing the congregtion?

Why would the Holy Spirit give a message in French that was intended for the Frenchman to an Englishman when the Englishman didn't know French and there was no interpreter available to help out? Sure - the Frenchman might not have been a believer and an intermediary was needed because he couldn't receive from the Holy Spirit directly. But did not the Holy Spirit know that the Englishman didn't speak French and there was no interpreter around?

As long as you’re going through these ideas – how about thinking through the prayer language situation a bit? In view of the biblical statements about praying to God - do I, an English speaker, pray in, say, French (a language I don’t speak) and am to keep it between myself and God if there are no Frenchmen around?

Try to picture the original Pentecost situation while thinking about who in that group is speaking what language, who understands them and who thinks them drunk etc.

Think about the other instances in Acts and how they would look (and why) if the tongues these folks suddenly spoke were known languages.

Anyway! I really would like to feature how these things would work if tongues are always known languages.

I know how it works worldwide in congregations and privately with what is likely millions of charismatic/Pentecostals. If I need examples of that - all I have to do is look at life around me on this continent and on other continents even more so to understand how the Holy Spirit apparently is fulfilling the instructions in the scriptures.

I’m not trying to be a smart a** here. I just want to picture how this would possibly look under the way that non-Pentecostals believe it did and then lay that way along side of the traditional Pentecostal vision of these things to see which makes the most sense in the various ways tongues are used.

You don’t have to lay it out all at once. Just, please, do me a favor and give me an example or two here so I can reconsider my position.

Thanks.
 
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pescador

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Since Paul wrote "If I speak in the tongues of men and of angels, but I do not have love, I am a noisy gong or a clanging cymbal" he is clearly saying that there are two kinds of "tongues", those spoken by men, which I believe are to be understood by other men, and those of angels, which I believe are entirely different.

He also wrote, "The one who prophesies is greater than the one who speaks in tongues, unless he interprets so that the church may be strengthened." Why would there be a need to interpret if the language could be understood like a prophecy?

He also wrote, "So if the whole church comes together and all speak in tongues, and unbelievers or uninformed people enter, will they not say that you have lost your minds?" If they were speaking in a normal language others would not judge them as having lost their minds. (Some of those in this discussion judge others in this manner.)

The biblical evidence seems to me to be clear and straight-forward. Some people have been given the gift of speaking in unknown tongues. In fact it's a spritual language that the speaker, including myself, can't understand with the mind. Paul wrote, "If I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays, but my mind is unproductive." It is clearly my spirit speaking; you can definitely feel that when you pray in tongues.

I realize that this may be difficult to accept if one hasn't been given that particular gift, but to say that it's unscriptural babbling is simply untrue.
 
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pescador

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Nearly 2,000 years ago Paul wrote an inspired letter to the church in Corinth, in part, to set them straight regarding their arrogant belief pertaining to speaking in tongues. Apparently not everyone got the memo.

There is no arrogance in many of us who speak in tongues. We are not Corinthians living in a Roman culture that existed 2000 years ago, who were arrogant about many things. This post is unnecessary, wrong, and arrogant.
 
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Phil 1:21

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There is no arrogance in many of us who speak in tongues. We are not Corinthians living in a Roman culture that existed 2000 years ago, who were arrogant about many things. This post is unnecessary, wrong, and arrogant.

If the shoe doesn't fit, feel free not to wear it.
 
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Marvin Knox

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Nearly 2,000 years ago Paul wrote an inspired letter to the church in Corinth, in part, to set them straight regarding their arrogant belief pertaining to speaking in tongues. Apparently not everyone got the memo.
Who didn't get the memo? I.E. who has an arrogant belief pertaining to speaking in tongues?
Actually, it's God shoe (scripture). You may want to read it sometime. Good stuff.
The scripture gives no clue as to who here you meant with your quip.

It isn't God who is slandering some of the brethren by calling them arrogant. It's you and you alone.

Although one guy here did say that the beliefs and practices of most charismatics is of the devil.

I have to say that his slander is a lot worse than yours. But why slander at all?
 
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Marvin Knox

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Some here have ridiculed the way that charismatics and Pentecostals believe in and practice tongues.

Assuming you aren't a cessationist - this question is for you. If you are a cessationist then all I can say is that IMO the idea of the Holy Spirit giving detailed instruction about how to practice something that would be obsolete about the time the ink dried on the paper seems a bit far fetched to me.

What other instructions given by the Holy Spirit no longer apply? Is salvation still by grace through faith? We can only hope that hasn't changed since the ink was dry on the pages of scripture.

The question is this. (Piggy back it in with my post number 410 above if you want.)

There were only an estimated 200,000,000 people alive on the earth when Jesus died. There are now at least 7.5 billion alive. In fact 20% of all the people who have ever lived are alive at this moment.

A large percentage of those people are Christians and close to 1/3 of those are charismatic/Pentecostals.

Virtually all of them believe and practice tongues in the way which I and others have laid out here - namely that tongues is an unknown language as practiced in the church if not in all of the Book of Acts as well.

It has been suggested (even insisted upon) that tongues are a known language. I and others have even been ridiculed for believing as most charismatics on earth do.

My question is this. Where, in the history of the church, since the scriptural directions concerning the practice of tongues were given to us, have we ever seen it practiced either corporately or privately with known languages?

I could get almost every charismatics on earth (again - soon if not currently about 1/3 of the church) to tell me what they believe about tongues and how they practice tongues and how their churches practice tongues. I believe that in almost every single case it would be as I believe it to be.

Give me an example of it being practiced with known languages (or preferably 100's of thousands of examples) in light of the Holy Spirit being the same yesterday, today and forever.

Just a few examples from history or current practices will do (and IMO are really necessary in light of the derisive attitude of some of those who believe that tongues were and must always be known languages).

Again - if you believe that tongues (be they gift or otherwise) passed away about the time we received the instructions concerning how to use them - then this question is not for you.
 
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The Thessalonian letters speak about end times. That is prophetic
 
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Waggles

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You don’t have to lay it out all at once. Just, please, do me a favor and give me an example or two here so I can reconsider my position.
You'll never work it out intellectually - the carnal mind is opposed to the mind of Christ.
It is a spiritual baptism where one is immersed in the Holy Spirit and one receives understanding.
10 But God hath revealed them unto us by his Spirit: for the Spirit searches all things, yea, the deep things of God.
11 For what man knows the things of a man, save the spirit of man which is in him? even so the
things of God knows no man, but the Spirit of God.
12 Now we have received, not the spirit of the world, but the spirit which is of God; that we might
know the things that are freely given to us of God.
13 Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teaches, but which the
Holy Ghost teaches; comparing spiritual things with spiritual.
14 But the natural man receives not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness
unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.
1 Corinthians 2:10-14

If you want to experience the truth of Pentecost then you need to put aside your own ways and seek
the Lord through the commandments given in the scriptures.
You can read for yourself what is required to enter in to the Kingdom of God:

Neither shall they say, Lo here! or, lo there! for, behold, the kingdom of God is within you.
Luke 17:21
7 Wonder not that I said to thee: You must be born again.
8 The Spirit breaths where he will and thou hear his voice: but thou know not whence he comes
and whither he goes. So is every one that is born of the Spirit.
John 3:7-8
37 Now when they heard this, they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest
of the apostles, Men and brethren, what shall we do?
38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of
Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
39 For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many
as the Lord our God shall call.
Acts 2:37-39
44 While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word.
45 And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost.
46 For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter,
47 Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?
48 And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then prayed they him to tarry certain days.
Acts 10:44-48

The Revival Fellowship, Fresno – A Church that knows the truth and has the proof
 
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