I see. That's reasonable enough, but I do not think that prevents the possibility of agreement.
I agree that we should strive after making our salvation certain, but I also believe that it is possible for someone to believe that he or she is a Christian, when he or she is in fact not, either due to not knowing what it is to be a Christian, or through an elaborate self or social deception.
I would say that we should always strive to be believe beyond all doubt, but even if for a time we feel that we have no doubt we should continue to read and to strive to ensure that we haven't missed something and that we haven't gotten something wrong, because it is always possible that we have, or that our tradition has.
And so what I am saying is that we shouldn't use, "I know that I am saved even though I have not yet been baptized, therefore the scripture must not really mean that I must be baptized," as an argument against the reading of John 3:5 that those who are saved are only those who are baptized. I believe that to do so is to place human intuition over Biblical authority.
This is not to say that I am certain that John 3:5 requires baptism. There are other arguments for the interpretation that it does not, and the link you gave presented one of those other arguments as well.
My point then is just that of the two forms of argument presented at the link for the interpretation that John 3:5 does not require baptism, one I believe is invalid because it relies on the psychological certainty of salvation (human intuition), and the other I did not think was conclusive, and the author of that document seemed to think he did not need to rely on it being conclusive because of his first argument.
So we could come to agreement, but it would have to be based on the interpretation of John 3:5 only on biblical terms, I want to say - the second argument.
Do you know what I mean?
I agree that we should strive after making our salvation certain, but I also believe that it is possible for someone to believe that he or she is a Christian, when he or she is in fact not, either due to not knowing what it is to be a Christian, or through an elaborate self or social deception.
I would say that we should always strive to be believe beyond all doubt, but even if for a time we feel that we have no doubt we should continue to read and to strive to ensure that we haven't missed something and that we haven't gotten something wrong, because it is always possible that we have, or that our tradition has.
And so what I am saying is that we shouldn't use, "I know that I am saved even though I have not yet been baptized, therefore the scripture must not really mean that I must be baptized," as an argument against the reading of John 3:5 that those who are saved are only those who are baptized. I believe that to do so is to place human intuition over Biblical authority.
This is not to say that I am certain that John 3:5 requires baptism. There are other arguments for the interpretation that it does not, and the link you gave presented one of those other arguments as well.
My point then is just that of the two forms of argument presented at the link for the interpretation that John 3:5 does not require baptism, one I believe is invalid because it relies on the psychological certainty of salvation (human intuition), and the other I did not think was conclusive, and the author of that document seemed to think he did not need to rely on it being conclusive because of his first argument.
So we could come to agreement, but it would have to be based on the interpretation of John 3:5 only on biblical terms, I want to say - the second argument.
Do you know what I mean?
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