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Sola Scriptura circa 700 AD

Erik Nelson

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yes, Jesus affirmed the Jewish TaNaKh ordering of Scripture

the ancient 1st century Jewish historian Josephus numbered as 22 books... Answering the charges of an anti-Semite named Apion at the end of the first century A.D., Josephus says:
Josephus was a Jesus-denying Jew. From a purely Christian perspective, doesn't that warrant a grain of salt or two?


what?

how can you base anything on 13th century pseudepigraphical fiction?

if PSEUDEPIGRAPHICAL works are so authoritative... Why not accept the DEUTEROCANONICAL APOCRYPHA, too?


And which means that the 39 book Protestant canon is more ancient than that of Rome's, as it corresponds to a ancient canon held by Palestinian Jews from before the third century
exactly NONE of whom accepted Jesus as Christ

you're basing your Christian doctrine on pseudepigraphical works, non Christian Jewish authorities...

basically everybody BUT Christians and the Church

when will non Christian Jewish authorities start basing their doctrines off of gentile and or Christian sources?

The earliest existing Greek manuscripts which contain some of them date from the 4th Century and are understood to have been placed therein by Christians.
as opposed to Josephus, pseudepigraphical 4 Ezra, and non Christian Palestinian Jews who are more trustworthy
sources of authority for Christians?

please provide a source? You're saying, that Philo of ALEXANDRIA said only the Torah of Moses was translated into Greek in the 3rd century BC?

the rest of the TaNaKh was translated later, evidently in the 2nd-1st centuries BC... Because every diaspora Jew had everything by the time of Christ



again, Philo was an extremely knowledgeable and well educated man, surely one of the most so in the Roman empire.

for all his worldly knowledge, he still missed (or at least denied) that Jesus was Christ.

i accept, on the strength of your words, that "proto Rabbinical" Judaism, from Josephus and Philo, through 3rd century Palestinian Jews, to modern Rabbinical Judaism ...

has long rejected the Apocrypha as being inspired

so?

what are you trying to get me to accept?

they also reject the NT as being inspired!

are they 2 for 2?

but, if you now backpedal, and acknowledge that they are only 1 for 2...

then you admit that they are not infallible judges of scriptural inspiration? they can claim something is not inspired, but be wrong?


in the second century AD the Jews seem largely to have discarded the Septuagint…there can be no real doubt that the comprehensive codices of the Septuagint, which start appearing in the fourth century AD, are all of Christian origin.
and that is a problem because...


This underlines the fact that the LXX, although, itself consisting of a collection of Jewish documents, wishes to be a Christian book.” (Martin Hengel, The Septuagint as Christian Scripture [Baker 2004], pp. 57-59)
oh no??

for shame for shame??



The Targums did not include these books, nor the earliest versions of the Peshitta, and the apocryphal books are seen to have been later additions,
fine I accept that non Christian Jews may never have accepted the Apocrypha

they don't accept the NT either, guess they're right about that too, being, as they are, such infallible authorities on inspiration of scripture?



fine I accept that non Christian Jews, from Palestine, may never have accepted the Apocrypha, from the Hasmoneans until today...

just to clarify, though... Are there any better books about the Maccabees and their dynasty, other than the biblical books of the Maccabees ?

you have seemingly shown that there were many flavors of LXX circulating during the early Church era, some with or without this or that book

but, you have to admit, yes, that all 73 books were in circulation, during that time?

Christians didn't write or invent or make up or concoct or fabricate ANY of the Apocrypha, yes?

they just took from what was available at the time?

you appear to be denying, that the Christian community can define it's own canon... Without Rabbinical Jewish oversight... On the grounds that Christians (including you?) aren't good judges of which writings are or are not inspired
 
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redleghunter

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how could diaspora Jews be studying their Scriptures, in Greek, in the early first century AD, unless the Scriptures had been translated into Greek earlier, beforehand...

BC ?
I think the point was the various and many manuscripts and whether or not the early fathers actually had versions of the LXX the apostles and Jesus quote from.
 
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Barney2.0

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Actually he uses it a couple of other times in his many writings, I just didn’t quote the rest. Tradition is distinct from scripture.
 
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Barney2.0

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The Jews had no defined canon that’s a fact. Certain people being hesitant on the canonicity of the Deuterocanonical books doesn’t change the fact the Church has always given them a Canonical status. In his original translation of the Bible Luther separated the books as Deuterocanonical books, he didn’t seperate them as apocrypha and non canonical books until much later. Many Church councils affirmed the Deuterocanonicals as inspired, way before the Roman Catholics decided to formally affirm them in the Council of Trent. Although you did give many sources you didn’t accurately refute the argument of Catholic Answers which still stands on Protestantism.
 
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Athanasius377

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So how would a Jew in the first know whether the books of Isaiah and 2nd Chronicles are Scripture?
 
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Barney2.0

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Martin Luther did dismiss 2 Maccabees because it disagreed to his rejection of a state of purification after death:

Lutheran biographer of Luther Julius Kostlin, gives a report of the Leipzig Debate with Eck:

During the discussion of the subject of purgatory, a quotation was made from the Books of the Maccabees (2 Macc 12:45), in which prayer for the dead is commended. Luther did not wish to reject the teaching of the passage, but he pronounced it insufficient as evidence, since the books in question do not belong to the canon.

(Theology of Luther in Its Historical Development and Inner Harmony, Vol. 1, 1897, 317)

The reason we have a different canon from the Roman Catholic Canon is the same reason we have different feast days and liturgies, as canon means what is acceptable to be read in the Divine Liturgy or Mass. Ethiopian Orthodox are not in communion with us, they are part of the Oriental Orthodox body of Churches not the Eastern Orthodox Church. As such I have no idea why they’re canon is different to ours as they have books I’ve never even heard of.
 
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Athanasius377

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Possibly with a tradition going back to Isaiah or Ezra.
So the Canon was fixed, yes? But you just said it wasn't .You can't have it both ways .
 
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Barney2.0

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So the Canon was fixed, yes? But you just said it wasn't .You can't have it both ways .
They know the books are inspired by oral tradition going back to Ezra or Isaiah, there still was no exact canon among the Jews.
 
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Barney2.0

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We are told daily that Sacred Scripture is Tradition by Roman Catholics and EOs.
I believe you have the words mixed up, we need Sacred Tradition to interpret Sacred Scripture, we can’t have one with out the other.
 
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PeaceByJesus

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The Jews had no defined canon that’s a fact.
That the "Jews" were not a monolithic community is a fact, yet it is also a FACT - based on the internal testimony of the NT - that by the time of Christ an extensive body (canon) of writings had been established as wholly inspired-of-God and authoritative, which as a body were referred to as Scripture. Obviously the hearers knew what this referred to.

And thus it is also a fact that upon which prophetic and doctrinal foundation a group of itinerant preachers and Preacher established the NT church, in dissent from the magisterial stewards of Scripture, but who never contended against the inspired writings that these preachers invoked as the authoritative word of God ("Scripture," it is written," etc.).
Certain people being hesitant on the canonicity of the Deuterocanonical books doesn’t change the fact the Church has always given them a Canonical status.
Certain non-ecumenical (non-infallible as per Rome) affirming a canon doesn’t change the fact that said Church had never given them undoubted, indisputable Canonical status.
In his original translation of the Bible Luther separated the books as Deuterocanonical books, he didn’t seperate them as apocrypha and non canonical books until much later.
Where are you getting this? What do you think this separation itself in his (he had help with the OT) translation of the whole Bible? Are you actually arguing that Luther he did not distinguish the Deuteros as non canonical booksin his Bible translation?
Many Church councils affirmed the Deuterocanonicals as inspired, way before the Roman Catholics decided to formally affirm them in the Council of Trent.[/QUOTE]
Which means many Church councils gave their fallible judgment that the Deuterocanonicals as inspired, leaving the issue disputable, right into Trent. Which means Luther was neither a maverick or villain for expressing a judgment like as many other Catholic scholars had and held to.
Many Church councils affirmed the Deuterocanonicals as inspired,] Although you did give many sources you didn’t accurately refute the argument of Catholic Answers which still stands on Protestantism.
Which is pure biased bombast. Its sophistry has indeed been exposed once more. Put not you trust in such men.
 
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redleghunter

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They know the books are inspired by oral tradition going back to Ezra or Isaiah, there still was no exact canon among the Jews.
Oral tradition? How so?
 
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redleghunter

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Yes, his first translation of the Bible in which he included the Deuterocanonical books.
And his last as well. He, like many before him in the Church did not view them as part of the protocanon.
 
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redleghunter

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I believe you have the words mixed up, we need Sacred Tradition to interpret Sacred Scripture, we can’t have one with out the other.
So the above is a "Sola Traditum" model?
 
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PeaceByJesus

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Oral tradition? How so?
It means tradition as supported under SS, that of Scripture providing for men ascertaining what is of God, both men and writings (essentially due to their unique heavenly qualities and attestation), and thus being established as authoritative.

In contrast to oral tradition itself being the word of God as declared by an infallible magisterium, and thus, as in Catholic theology,

"the believer cannot believe in the Bible nor find in it the object of his faith until he has previously made an act of faith in the intermediary authorities..." - Catholic Encyclopedia>Tradition and Living Magisterium

"People cannot discover the contents of revelation by their unaided powers of reason and observation. They have to be told by people who have received it from on high." - Cardinal Avery Dulles, SJ, "Magisterium: Teacher and Guardian of the Faith, p. 72;

Which is untenable in the light of history and Scripture, but consistent with this Catholic reasoning, since believers are not able to discover the contents of the Bible apart from faith in her, in seeking to convert those without her, Catholic appeal is to be made to Scripture merely as a reliable historical document, under the premise that the soul can find warrant therein to believe in and submit to The Church®, and thus know that this reliable historical document in the wholly inspired word of God (but only as a second or third class authority).

Which premise means that the unconverted cannot discern Scripture as being Scripture, but can discern the RCC as being the one true church. Which means she thinks her Divine qualities are more more manifest than Scripture, and which attests to her arrogant self-exaltation.
 
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Barney2.0

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Which means many Church councils gave their fallible judgment that the Deuterocanonicals as inspired, leaving the issue disputable, right into Trent. Which means Luther was neither a maverick or villain for expressing a judgment like as many other Catholic scholars had and held to.

Which is pure biased bombast. Its sophistry has indeed been exposed once more. Put not you trust in such men.[/QUOTE]
Then can you name me a canon of the Old Testament that didn’t vary regionally? Show me any canon universally established among the Jews of the time of Jesus Christ. The council of Carthage You haven’t exposed anything so far. The Church already gave the books the same status as any other book in about three councils Rome (A.D. 382), Hippo (A.D. 393), Carthage (A.D. 397), to claim anything else would be clear misinterpretation of the facts. Yes three fallible Church councils have their view that these books are part of the Bible, if they were wrong then there would be widespread opposition from the Church that these books shouldn’t be in the Bible, such a thing never occured which shows the councils were merely confirming an already held belief about the books. It’s very different to Martin Luther coming and saying “hey let’s remove these books because they’re forgeries and not inspired.” Both are fallible decisions yet one decision is not foreign to Church history while one is. Luther distinguished between Canonical books and Deuterocanonical books, Deuterocanonical books are classified as secondary to the Canonical books although both are inspired. Which is why Luther organized them differently, he didn’t include them in a sections of inspired and non inspired to suggest so would be pure absurdity.
 
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