- Feb 17, 2005
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There's an argument starting up in another thread about slavery and the Bible's condonement of it. Which is again another interesting study into the American literal hermeneutic. (I say American because frankly I've never seen anyone else come up with it on their own within the last two centuries. Every creationist I know here learnt the stuff from your books. So it's your fault!
)
Here's the question:
Does the Bible condone slavery?
If no, where does it specifically prohibit slavery?
If yes, why don't you have a slave?
It is rather interesting to study how American history is related to the Bible. After all, the drafters of the Declaration of Independence (I hope I'm not touching any nerves) were surely Christians, and yet much of what they say can be "refuted" from the Bible. For example:
Really? The right to life I won't contest. But if man's unalienable right is to liberty then why were there regulations of slavery in God-given Laws? And neither can I find the right to pursuit of happiness in the Bible, except an admonition from Ecclesiastes that there is nothing better for man under the sun. C.S. Lewis has said as much too, that "man has no right to happiness".
Don't governments derive their just powers from God?
But we are supposed to pray for governments, not alter or abolish them.
Yet if the signers of this document were Christians, they must have been convinced that it was Scriptural. Is it still Scriptural?
Can a practice or belief be Scriptural in one age and not in another?
Here's the question:
Does the Bible condone slavery?
If no, where does it specifically prohibit slavery?
If yes, why don't you have a slave?
It is rather interesting to study how American history is related to the Bible. After all, the drafters of the Declaration of Independence (I hope I'm not touching any nerves) were surely Christians, and yet much of what they say can be "refuted" from the Bible. For example:
WE hold these Truths to be self-evident, that all Men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty and the Pursuit of Happiness
Really? The right to life I won't contest. But if man's unalienable right is to liberty then why were there regulations of slavery in God-given Laws? And neither can I find the right to pursuit of happiness in the Bible, except an admonition from Ecclesiastes that there is nothing better for man under the sun. C.S. Lewis has said as much too, that "man has no right to happiness".
That to secure these Rights, Governments are instituted among Men, deriving their just Powers from the Consent of the Governed
Don't governments derive their just powers from God?
that whenever any Form of Government becomes destructive of these Ends, it is the Right of the People to alter or to abolish it, and to institute new Government, laying its Foundation on such Principles, and organizing its Powers in such Form, as to them shall seem most likely to effect their Safety and Happiness.
But we are supposed to pray for governments, not alter or abolish them.
Yet if the signers of this document were Christians, they must have been convinced that it was Scriptural. Is it still Scriptural?
Can a practice or belief be Scriptural in one age and not in another?