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Dave-W

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tell that to John who says


And he is the propitiation/atonement for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
Sins of the individuals of the whole world. That is not the nation(s).
 
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DennisTate

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Very interesting indeed!

I had thought that the "goat for Azazel" also referred to Barabbas / Bar Abbas who was released. I felt that each of us needs to come to the place where we regard our own sins as up there with the sins of the notable prisoner Barabbas / Bar Abbas who had committed murder and led a revolt.

I think that my pride..... my tendency to be self-righteous and Laodicean / lukewarm ..... is a very serious sin that can infect others.
 
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DennisTate

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jamesbond007

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Interesting. Thanks for the patient explanation. After examining, I think you are right about the two goats, but have one question. Why was the goat that was sent away treated as "unclean" if it represented Jesus?
 
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Ing Bee

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Agreed on both... and I would suggest that Azazel, where the sin of Israel is symbolically heaped, is a picture of satan rather than messiah. The idea being that the sin goes back to where it came and then is driven away for good.

Yes, in second temple literature, Azazel is one of the bene elohim complicit in the "daughters of men" marrying the bene elohim (sons of God) in Genesis 6. He is accursed and is associated with desert places.

If anyone is interested, Dr. Michael Heiser's The Unseen Realm and Reversing Hermon include discussions of the relevant literature.
 
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Ken Rank

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You have no idea how accurate their oral tradition was. It was extremely accurate; way beyond anything today.
The problem is, most people don't really understand what their oral tradition is. If they took the time to study it, they would come to understand the truth in what you said.
 
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Hammster

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Ah, sorry Hammy. In that case, I would think my answer is no.
So every time “world” is used it has the same definition? That will make for some interesting reading.
 
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redleghunter

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You should probably do a study on “world” and the various ways John uses the word.
Yes I believe John 3:16 qualified “world” as those who believe in Him. So there’s a distinction there.

We must be mindful most of the NT was to a mix of Jewish and Gentile believers. The Jewish believers would be of the opinion the promises of Messiah were for Israel and not Gentiles. So by using terms as “all” and “world” John and Paul would be making the point those two terms meant Christ is the savior for all peoples. Meaning not just Jews.

I believe this is confirmed at the Council of Jerusalem where certain Jews wanted Gentiles to be circumcised and follow the Law of Moses. They believed only the promises belonged to Jews and those who “become” Jews. So there was a certain cultural bias and the apostles dealt with it by using no uncertain terms as “all” and “world.”
 
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redleghunter

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redleghunter

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I think he is pulling our leg.
 
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redleghunter

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Interesting. Thanks for the patient explanation. After examining, I think you are right about the two goats, but have one question. Why was the goat that was sent away treated as "unclean" if it represented Jesus?
Perhaps because if carried the sins?
 
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DamianWarS

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all hebrew words have meaning and there is no word that existed without a direct common meaning, this is true for names as well, and Azazel is no different. The word is from EZ = goat (H5795) and AZAL = sent away (H235). Scapegoat is actually a good translation.

the passage does say one is "for Yahweh" and one is "for Azazel" so based on the text Yahweh/Azazel do seem to be contrasted which could lead to this idea that Azazel is a proper name that is the antithesis of Yahweh so this Azazel could not be Christ. But the passage seems to call the goat both by the word azazel and for azazel. Perhaps the former is a role and the latter some sort of euphemistic word for the enemy because obviously we don't sent sins to God.

there are 2 goats, one is a sin offering and the other for atonement. Atonement as per Christianity is about reconciliation between God and man through Christ, so if any of the goats point to Christ then the scapegoat certainly should be one as it is about atonement but also the sin offering goat or the Goat for the Yahweh points to Christ.

Sin is an ugly thing and Christ had to take upon all sin and be a sin offering being without sin, so worthy for the sin offering, yet carried all sin at the same time so he occupied both roles together. The sins put upon Christ for atonement are not for Yahweh, the sin offering is for Yahweh, but the sins upon Christ are for Azazel or the goat sent away. The result was subsequent death and Jesus in the grave for 3 days. When he resurrected he no longer carried the sins and atonement was accomplished so wherever Christ went he seems to have been effectively carried away these sins.

Hebrew confirms this of course
"But in these sacrifices there is a reminder of sins every year. For it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins ... we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all." (Heb 10:3-4,10)
 
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mmksparbud

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Scapegoat

The scapegoat carried the sin of the people away with it, thereby cleansing Israel for another year.
The English scapegoat is a compound of the archaic verb scape, which means "escape," and goat, and is modeled on a misreading of the Hebrew ʽazāzēl (which is probably the name of a demon) as ʽēz 'ōzēl , "the goat that departs." More modern translations render scapegoat in this text as Azazel, but the misreading endured and has entered the lexicon.
History and Etymology for scapegoat
Noun
scape entry 1; intended as translation of Hebrew ʽazāzēl (probably name of a demon), as if ʽēz 'ōzēl goat that departs—Leviticus 16:8 (King James Version)
Definition of SCAPEGOAT

Tyndale translated the word Asazel into "escape goat"--over time, the e was dropped.

It is now generally accepted that Tyndale got his translation of the Hebrew sources wrong. He misread ʿăzāzel' in the original and translated it as 'ez ozel', literally 'the goat that departs' or ‘the goote on which the lotte fell to scape’. Later scholars corrected the mistake and 'scapegoat' doesn't appear in the Revised Version of 1884, which has ‘Azazel’ as a proper name in the text, but by that time the word had already been established as a commonplace word. So commonplace in fact that, in the way that 'gate' is now added to form the name for any scandal, the 18th century gave us 'scape-horses', 'scape-rats' and 'scape-geese'.
'Scapegoat' - the meaning and origin of this word
 
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Ken Rank

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So every time “world” is used it has the same definition? That will make for some interesting reading.
Not at all. In THAT verse the context is,very clear. I am saying it can only mean that in THAT verse. If you have a verse with world in it in another verse share it, we would look at it individually.
 
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jamesbond007

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Perhaps because if carried the sins?

What do you mean by "carried?" There is the “substitutionary atonement,” but that has to be in blood with the first goat. The second could be the knowledge of the sins. If Jesus reviews one's life at Final Judgment, then you're going to see your sins flashing by you. Some would have been forgotten and some of them you will remember. I suppose it's emotional pains and scars, too.

If the scapegoat was Satan, then he'd probably enjoy it and take it away like it was gold coins or something valuable.

ETA: Also, I think the first goat had to be clean. Just like Jesus. In other words, Jesus was perfect. He was without sin. This is supposed to be Adam, but he failed.
 
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Hammster

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Not at all. In THAT verse the context is,very clear. I am saying it can only mean that in THAT verse. If you have a verse with world in it in another verse share it, we would look at it individually.
Grammatically, is that the only use of the word?

I don’t think that the wrath of God is satisfied against every person who ever lived. So the context does NOT support it. It does support the use I proposed that John meant people from every tongue, tribe, and nation.
 
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Ken Rank

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All I am saying is, in that verse, it is saying his work is sufficient for all people for all time.

1 John 2:2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

World = kosmos, it is Greek and means ornaments (as in Ezekiel 23:40 in the LXX), universe, world, Earth and it's inhabitants, world affairs and a few other words not relevant to this discussion.

Of the possible words, only world or universe really fit here. The reason I believe it is for all time is because of verses like Romans 8:22 ("the whole creation groans and labors with birth pangs together until now") as that verse infers an ongoing "panging" that continues today. We also have verses like 2 Cor 5:15 (" He died for all, that those who live should live no longer for themselves, but for Him who died for them and rose again") where "all" is "pas" in Greek, which means, "all, any, every, the whole." But beyond me listing off verses, since Yeshua is the way, the truth, and the life and nobody gets to the Father save through the work He did, then we can't say that Abraham, David and others like them get in a different way when Yeshua was clear he was the only way. Since Abraham, David and others are called fathers, brethren and other terms that make them part of the same family to which we belong. We can't read Hebrews 11 knowing the just live(d) by faith and not include those listed as brothers... and therefore, the context of the bible is the work of messiah is applied to all for all time. Those that believe and those who looked forward to the redemption that would come. That all, applied to 1 John 2:2 leads me to believe that 'world' is the planet, it's inhabitants, the universe, and all who ever lived.

Biblical context is we fell and then prophecies began to mount speaking of a coming redemption for the fall. It might have happened 4000 years later, and we look back 2000 years from today... but that event was the event necessary to reverse the curse of sin and death for all who ever lived. The God of love, peace and joy didn't send His son to only save those born after 33AD, and leave off 4000 years of servants and worshipers because they were born on the wrong side of the timeline. His work is once for ALL... and thus the 2 John verse has to fit into that that context. The use of kosmos elsewhere should be taken on a case by case basis.
 
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Hammster

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The problem is that it doesn’t say that His work is sufficient for all people. I agree that it is. What it says is that He is a propitiation for the whole world. Propitiation means that God’s wrath is satisfied. If it’s satified against all sin, then there is no reason that any should be sent to hell. It would be unjust. But we know that His wrath remains on some (John 3:36). So you can’t have His wrath both remaining on some while at the same time be satisfied against all.
 
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Ken Rank

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We don't disagree... we're just going to end up saying the same or similar things using words we are more comfortable with. The bottom line is that sin entered the world by a man (Adam) and was addressed by the second Adam which takes His work back to the first Adam. So sin "for all time" is included in that concept. Now, I don't believe all people are saved, I am not a universalist, but of those who looked forward to His coming or at least the work God would one day do, and those who now look back at the work that was done... are all part of the same family.

Blessings.
Ken
 
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