- Apr 4, 2004
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I know that I am not Catholic but I would like the advice of the people here, and so I hope it is ok if I post it here. I don't want it in the Unorthodox Theology because I'm worried about it being Trolled and I only want responses from people who are commited to the belief that they are not valid Christian Baptisms. However I am having trouble working this out in my head.
So what Mormons refer to as baptisms are not valid baptisms because they do not ultimately refer to the persons of the Trinity due to thier difference in theology. Presumably the reason they are invalid is that their theology regarding the Father, Son and Holy Ghost (as they never say Spirit) is different enough that they no longer in fact ultimately refer to the individual members of the Trinity when they perform their ceremony. Essentially the claim is that some sort of equivocation is going on. This, however, cannot be absolute equivocation or else statements like 'Mormons believe that the Father was once a man' or 'They do not believe that that Father, Son, and Holy Ghost are consubstantial in the same way that we do' are in fact false statements. I don't mean that what the Mormons say is false but rather that the statement that they say it is false. In fact they would not make statements about any member of the Trinity because the words simply do not mean the same thing. This seems to not be the case.
So I'm forced to consider an analogy of Theseus's ship. I assume you know the story, but Theseus's sails off in his ship from Athens. During the course of his journey every piece of his ship needs replacing, and he replaces them all. The question is: is he sailing the same ship when he gets back to Athens? The caveat being: what would happen if someone had followed him around and picked up all the old pieces and built a ship out of them, would that be Theseus's Ship? Now I'm of the opinion that as long as during the repairs the first ship never stopped being a ship then it is still the original ship. And for the purposes of this analogy we have to assume that I am right and that this corresponds to the true teaching regarding the Trinity. We also need to assume that basically everyone has agreed with me for hundreds of years. We also need to assume that the name Theseus's Ship is simply a proper name of a ship and it doesn't matter if Theseus still owns it. Finally we need to assume that this hypothetical second ship has in fact never been made. Now a new group of people crop up that think the other thing is Theseus's Ship. Now this group could theoretically fall into one of three groups. A. They could think that there is some imaginary ship in Thrace that is in fact this ship. B. They could have some ship of their own and claim that it is the said ship. C. They could continue to think that the ship that everyone else thinks is the ship is in fact Theseus's Ship, but simply believe that that ship is made from all the old parts. For someone in groups A or B, then we have some group of people who at the present refer to a separate ship than those who are right, but the two have a common reference point such that conversations they have using the words Theseus's Ship do not become simply talking past each other.
There are couple of problems with this analogy. Firstly if one asked a Mormon 'Presume hypothetically that you are wrong. Now consider this analogy which of these groups do you fall into?', they would probably all say number three, and it seems historically this is what happened, ie most of the initial Mormons before becoming Mormons were 'orthodox' enough Christians, or at least existed within an 'orthodox' enough Christian society where if they were using the words Father, Son, or Holy Ghost they would ultimately be making reference to whomever orthodox Christains make reference to. This is even true of Joseph Smith. When Joseph Smith began teaching, then, he presumably meant to make reference to by these words what he had always intended to make reference to, for either he whole heartedly believed it and so this is probably the case or he was a lying conman in which case it is unlikely that he considered the philosophical problems of identity which he was creating. Likewise the people who heard him probably considered themselves to be referring to the same things they always had. If we get to the point where it is really important: an individual Mormon X, before becoming Mormon has been praying to the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost his whole life. He becomes Mormon and is still praying to some entities which he refers to as Father, Son, and Holy Ghost. He presumably intends to be praying to whom hhe has always been praying, not to deny that those persons to whom we was previously praying were really the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost, and that now he wants to pray to something else which they were only impersonating.
The second is that in the analogy at the very least the ship which is actually Theseus's Ship in physically present in a simple form. If you said to someone take me to the specific ship you are talking about they could easily take you to Theseus's Ship if they wanted to. Prayer and ceremonial reference are more like long distance communication, if you will, so no such test is so obvious either to us or them.
Here's the problem then we have to assume that despite their using the same sound, intending to make reference to the same thing, they don't, without noticing (at least not enough that it convinced them it happened), because of false beliefs regarding that thing, despite the fact that there is some real way that they do make reference to the thing because the equivocation is not absolute. Fine I could see this, but what is it about their false beliefs that puts them over the edge. It cannot be that they don't believe in the Trinity because neither did classical Arians or Modalist really, but no one doubts their baptisms. Nor can it be that they believe the Father to be a finite entity because there was a time in Egypt when most of the Monks there believed God to have a body and for that body to be anthropomorphic (though I suppose they could at the same time believe contradictorily that he was infinite) and no one doubts the validity of their baptisms either. Likewise it cannot be that they do not believe the Father to be the source of all things as there were many early Christians who mistakenly believed that God made things out of preexisting matter and no one is doubting their baptisms. Moreover classical Arians were capable of referring to the Son and Spirit without thinking that they were eternal or the source of all things. The Modalists were capable of referring to all three persons without thinking they were persons at all but simply ways of describing God. As far as I know they wouldn't have said that 'Father', 'Son', and 'Spirit', weren't really any different than 'Love', 'Wisdom', 'Truth'. All are terms that describe some 'aspect' of God but in fact they are all simply the same thing.
The idea that someone could accidentally stop refering to God is an exceedinly scary prospect, especially when the process does not make sense to me.
So what Mormons refer to as baptisms are not valid baptisms because they do not ultimately refer to the persons of the Trinity due to thier difference in theology. Presumably the reason they are invalid is that their theology regarding the Father, Son and Holy Ghost (as they never say Spirit) is different enough that they no longer in fact ultimately refer to the individual members of the Trinity when they perform their ceremony. Essentially the claim is that some sort of equivocation is going on. This, however, cannot be absolute equivocation or else statements like 'Mormons believe that the Father was once a man' or 'They do not believe that that Father, Son, and Holy Ghost are consubstantial in the same way that we do' are in fact false statements. I don't mean that what the Mormons say is false but rather that the statement that they say it is false. In fact they would not make statements about any member of the Trinity because the words simply do not mean the same thing. This seems to not be the case.
So I'm forced to consider an analogy of Theseus's ship. I assume you know the story, but Theseus's sails off in his ship from Athens. During the course of his journey every piece of his ship needs replacing, and he replaces them all. The question is: is he sailing the same ship when he gets back to Athens? The caveat being: what would happen if someone had followed him around and picked up all the old pieces and built a ship out of them, would that be Theseus's Ship? Now I'm of the opinion that as long as during the repairs the first ship never stopped being a ship then it is still the original ship. And for the purposes of this analogy we have to assume that I am right and that this corresponds to the true teaching regarding the Trinity. We also need to assume that basically everyone has agreed with me for hundreds of years. We also need to assume that the name Theseus's Ship is simply a proper name of a ship and it doesn't matter if Theseus still owns it. Finally we need to assume that this hypothetical second ship has in fact never been made. Now a new group of people crop up that think the other thing is Theseus's Ship. Now this group could theoretically fall into one of three groups. A. They could think that there is some imaginary ship in Thrace that is in fact this ship. B. They could have some ship of their own and claim that it is the said ship. C. They could continue to think that the ship that everyone else thinks is the ship is in fact Theseus's Ship, but simply believe that that ship is made from all the old parts. For someone in groups A or B, then we have some group of people who at the present refer to a separate ship than those who are right, but the two have a common reference point such that conversations they have using the words Theseus's Ship do not become simply talking past each other.
There are couple of problems with this analogy. Firstly if one asked a Mormon 'Presume hypothetically that you are wrong. Now consider this analogy which of these groups do you fall into?', they would probably all say number three, and it seems historically this is what happened, ie most of the initial Mormons before becoming Mormons were 'orthodox' enough Christians, or at least existed within an 'orthodox' enough Christian society where if they were using the words Father, Son, or Holy Ghost they would ultimately be making reference to whomever orthodox Christains make reference to. This is even true of Joseph Smith. When Joseph Smith began teaching, then, he presumably meant to make reference to by these words what he had always intended to make reference to, for either he whole heartedly believed it and so this is probably the case or he was a lying conman in which case it is unlikely that he considered the philosophical problems of identity which he was creating. Likewise the people who heard him probably considered themselves to be referring to the same things they always had. If we get to the point where it is really important: an individual Mormon X, before becoming Mormon has been praying to the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost his whole life. He becomes Mormon and is still praying to some entities which he refers to as Father, Son, and Holy Ghost. He presumably intends to be praying to whom hhe has always been praying, not to deny that those persons to whom we was previously praying were really the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost, and that now he wants to pray to something else which they were only impersonating.
The second is that in the analogy at the very least the ship which is actually Theseus's Ship in physically present in a simple form. If you said to someone take me to the specific ship you are talking about they could easily take you to Theseus's Ship if they wanted to. Prayer and ceremonial reference are more like long distance communication, if you will, so no such test is so obvious either to us or them.
Here's the problem then we have to assume that despite their using the same sound, intending to make reference to the same thing, they don't, without noticing (at least not enough that it convinced them it happened), because of false beliefs regarding that thing, despite the fact that there is some real way that they do make reference to the thing because the equivocation is not absolute. Fine I could see this, but what is it about their false beliefs that puts them over the edge. It cannot be that they don't believe in the Trinity because neither did classical Arians or Modalist really, but no one doubts their baptisms. Nor can it be that they believe the Father to be a finite entity because there was a time in Egypt when most of the Monks there believed God to have a body and for that body to be anthropomorphic (though I suppose they could at the same time believe contradictorily that he was infinite) and no one doubts the validity of their baptisms either. Likewise it cannot be that they do not believe the Father to be the source of all things as there were many early Christians who mistakenly believed that God made things out of preexisting matter and no one is doubting their baptisms. Moreover classical Arians were capable of referring to the Son and Spirit without thinking that they were eternal or the source of all things. The Modalists were capable of referring to all three persons without thinking they were persons at all but simply ways of describing God. As far as I know they wouldn't have said that 'Father', 'Son', and 'Spirit', weren't really any different than 'Love', 'Wisdom', 'Truth'. All are terms that describe some 'aspect' of God but in fact they are all simply the same thing.
The idea that someone could accidentally stop refering to God is an exceedinly scary prospect, especially when the process does not make sense to me.