Question regarding Deacons

[Frame1520]

Same question as the Elder thread. I know some who say Deacons must have children. Some say they must be married not single. Others say they can be married but don't have to have children. Some say they must have children. What does the bible say? What are your thoughts?

 

[ParsonJefferson]

Same question as the Elder thread. I know some who say Deacons must have children. Some say they must be married not single. Others say they can be married but don't have to have children. Some say they must have children. What does the bible say? What are your thoughts?

You'll basically find that the same qualifications for Elders apply to Deacons. But the focus of the Deacons' tasks is different than that of the Elders.

Do I believe a single man, who has no children, can serve as a deacon? Yes, absolutely.

Do I believe that there are both good and bad deacons - based not on their spiritual qualifications, but on their abilities? Yes, absolutely.

 

[Splayd]

I tend to see Acts 6 as an early example of the appointment of deacons.

Act 6:2-4 Then the twelve called the multitude of the disciples unto them, and said, It is not reasonable that we should leave the word of God, and serve tables. Therefore, brethren, pick out from among you seven men of honest report, full of the Holy Spirit and wisdom, whom we may appoint over this business. But we will give ourselves continually to prayer, and to the ministry of the word.

While they chose men in that instance and 1 Timothy also uses the phrase "husband of one wife" I'd not consider it necessary for a deacon to be married or... even male necessarily

It seems to me that Phoebe was probably a deacon and a lot of commentators agree:

Rom 16:1 I commend unto you Phebe our sister, who is a servant of the church which is at Cenchrea

 

[ProfessorJ]

I havent done a great deal of research on this, but if my memory serves me right Titus and 1 Timothy have the requirements for elders and deacons. If Im mistaken, please correct me.

God Bless.

 

[annie1speed]

God in His incredible wisdom has reasons for the requirements He sets. Therefore I have a pretty conservative interpretation of the verses from Timothy and Titus.


Husband ... I do not believe can be used to describe a woman.

Husband of one wife .... I do not believe can be used to descrbe an unmarried person, be it a man or woman.

Ruling their children well... I do not believe can be used to describe one who has no children. I do believe these can be adopted.

It is all so clear. There are good men who are not married and/or have no children. They can serve God and the church in many ways, but not as elders and deacons.

 

[- DRA -]

God in His incredible wisdom has reasons for the requirements He sets. Therefore I have a pretty conservative interpretation of the verses from Timothy and Titus.


Husband ... I do not believe can be used to describe a woman.

Husband of one wife .... I do not believe can be used to descrbe an unmarried person, be it a man or woman.

Ruling their children well... I do not believe can be used to describe one who has no children. I do believe these can be adopted.

It is all so clear. There are good men who are not married and/or have no children. They can serve God and the church in many ways, but not as elders and deacons.

 

[Splayd]

Hey annie

I appreciate and respect your perspective. I also recognise that scriptural writings were very often gender specific when really referring to everyone. eg: the word "man" is regularly used for "all people" and though we're often only given the number of men at certain places and times, we generally understand that there were women and children there as well.

Now - that in itself doesn't mean anything... BUT it leaves open to me the possibility that these verses may be applied generally. As far as application of these passages - I can only know with certainty that it applies to men. The general implication from these verses in isolation is that it wouldn't apply to women, but that isn't presented as certainly.

For greater clarification, I'd consider them against the broader context of scripture. One might want to consider these passages in light of the advice that women remain silent. Inversely, one might consider Phebe, Priscilla and the fact that there is no longer Jew or Gentile, man or woman etc...

I'm not really presenting an argument for either case in this post. Rather I'm appealing for people to consider the broader context.

Peace

 

[annie1speed]

Hey Splayd,

When you said ' the fact that there is no longer Jew or Gentile, man or woman etc...

Isn't that referring to God not showing partiality to anyone because of their station in life?

 

[Splayd]

Hey Splayd,

When you said ' the fact that there is no longer Jew or Gentile, man or woman etc...

Isn't that referring to God not showing partiality to anyone because of their station in life?

Yeah. I wasn't trying to force any sort of an interpretation there, just directing us to that passage as one that often gets brought into these sort of considerations.

Interestingly, I think it's one that most people are inconsistent in applying. eg: Someone will use it specifically when refering to the gentile/jew situation but generally when referring to the man/woman situation or vice-versa.

Peace

 

[crawfish]

Husband ... I do not believe can be used to describe a woman.

By itself, probably not. But taken into context with the text that makes it clear Phoebe was a female deacon, perhaps it should be taken into a different light.

It is probably important to note that the Elder qualifications are actually different in Titus and Timothy. In effect, the restrictions are far greater in the latter than in the former. This is probably attributed to the fact that on Crete, the new Christians came from non-Jewish backgrounds, and many had lived up to then with lower standards of moral behavior.

 

[JDIBe]

By itself, probably not. But taken into context with the text that makes it clear Phoebe was a female deacon, perhaps it should be taken into a different light.

The word "deacon" in greek simply means "servant". It does not necessarily mean "The office of a Deacon". One has to be cautious interpreting it that way when the context does not require it.

It that were true, then the church would be full of "Deacons" as any one who serves another in any capacity would hold the office of a "Deacon". It is also notable that this word "servant" is used of Christ as well.

One of the earliest passages describing the existance and role of a "deaconess" is found in the "Apostlolic Constitutions" of the early 4th Century.

8.28. A deacon does no bless, does not give the blessing, but receives it from the bishop and presbyter: he does not baptize, he does not offer; but when a bishop or presbyter has offered, he distributes to the people, not as a priest, but as one that ministers to the priests. ... A deaconess does not bless, nor perform anything belonging to the office of presbyters or deacons, but only is to keep the doors, and to minister to the presbyters in the baptizing of women, on account of decency.

The Bible text itself does not seem to support the role of women in the office of a Deacon, but certainly supports the role of BOTH men and women as "servants". (in fact, I think, requires... )