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Question regarding baptism

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Stinker

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"My question is now this, because they were not baptized in water are they going to go to heaven?" Opening Post question

Why not answer with a (yes) or (no) instead of arguing over whether certain baptism verses are referring to water or Spirit baptism.
 
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KEPLER

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A most excellent rejoinder, and, again, thoroughly Biblical. Joh 3:5 is definitely talking about the Spirit accompnaying water baptism.
Maximus said:
BTW, nowhere does the Bible say we are saved by "faith alone."

In fact, the only place in all the Bible where faith and alone are used together is James 2:24, and that verse says that we are justified by works and not by faith alone.

DOH!!! And you had been doing SO well...

Didn't you just say something about not making the EXCEPTION the rule??? Then why do you do it here?
Rom 3:28 said:
For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from observing the law.
Rom 4:5 said:
However, to the man who does not work but trusts God who justifies the wicked, his faith is credited as righteousness.
Rom 5:1-3 said:
Therefore, since we have been justified through faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom we have gained access by faith into this grace in which we now stand. And we rejoice in the hope of the glory of God.
Rom 11:6 said:
And if by grace, then it is no longer by works; if it were, grace would no longer be grace.
Gal 3:5-6 said:
Does God give you his Spirit and work miracles among you because you observe the law, or because you believe what you heard?
Consider Abraham: "He believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness."
Gal 3:24-26 said:
So the law was put in charge to lead us to Christ[ that we might be justified by faith. 25Now that faith has come, we are no longer under the supervision of the law. You are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus

There are of course, many more examples...the most famous probably being the "Parable of the Lost Items" in Luke 15, which clearly teaches salvation apart from works. (Neither the sheep, nor the coin, nor the younger son did ANYTHING to "find" themselves.)

Now, there are a few wags out there (educated wags, but wrong!, like N.T. Wright...) who claim that Paul is talking only about the ceremonial law, but that is self-evidently untrue. In his discussion of the "Law" in Romans 7, he is not using the "ceremonial law" as his primary example, he is using the "moral law" as the example of the law that cannot save. He's using covetousness as his example: covetousness is not part of the ceremonial law; it is part of the moral law. In other places, Paul inlcudes the ceremonial law as well, so Paul (overall) is discussing ANY law, ceremonial, moral, whatever. It DOES not, CANNOT save us.

But then we come to James...and all too often, people like to pull out one verse without looking at the context. James' epistle is about judging other Christains, specifically, judging other Christians according to their socio-economic status. James has a specific crowd he's speaking to, and I'm of the convivtion that James doesn't think these people are truly Christians. He calls them "brothers", but he gives them a dressing down like no one else in Scripture. This book displays a "righteous anger" on par with Jesus' "brood of vipers" remarks. Look at how James addresses them (the same audience!) towards the end of the letter:
They don't sound like his "brothers" anymore, do they? He goes on to call them brothers, once again...but his anger and disappointment with them is the driving force of this letter.
This is the more important part of the second chapter of James. Without using this to set the stage for the latter half, the latter half will invariably turn into something it is not.

In the first 4 verses, he is accusing his readers of discrimination. And what we must understand is, his readers were truly guilty of this. He would not be accusing them, if they had not actually done it. "J'accuse!!", James is saying. And he goes on to say, that if they are going to behave that way, then thay themselves will be discrimiated against come judgement time. In this sense, James is mimicking Paul in Galatains 3:
Paul is saying, "In Jesus we are all the same." NO FAVORITES. Jmaes is saying the same thing: NO FAVORITES. If you play by that rule, you will judged by that rule. The "work" that James is presribing is "living by the Gospel", or, as Jesus put it:
John 6:29 said:
Jesus answered, "The work of God is this: to believe in the one he has sent."
James is accusing them of living by the cultural rules (pharisaism) rather than by Faith. The "work" of "believing" is "living by faith". Faith trusts Christ. James -- just like Paul -- is ATTACKING people who were continuing to live in their "old world."

In the world Jesus confronted, well-off and self-righteous people looked down on poor people. They BELIEVED that poor people were poor BECAUSE they were sinners. They BELIEVED that they themselves were blessed BY God, and that the proof of this was their socio-economic status. (What on earth would James have said to the Mercedes-driving TV preachers today? I'd REALLY like to see that!)

The people James confronts here are pharisees (in the metaphorical sense). They think they are better than others, and that they themselves should get priveleged places to sit in the synagogue (just like they ALWAYS had!). James is slapping them upside the head. He is, (to use an American colloquialism), "PREACHIN' IT!" Verse 12 is the most succinct and tight presentation of what we Lutherans call "Law and Gospel": Live as those who are free (Gospel), but if in your freedom you put others in bondage, you yourselves will be treated the same (LAW). Freedom triumphs over bondage (GOSPEL).

NOW we have set the stage for the latter portion of the Chapter (which, BTW, is more LAW.)
Well, so far, he's saying that genuine faith is demomstrated outwardly by works. And that's ALL he has said.
AH!. So what James really seems to be suggesting is that these people he's speaking to have not actually "repented"...their minds have not been changed. Their faith is not GENUINE; they are still living by the old rules. They are not trusting God.

GENUINE faith (as Abraham had) shows trust in God. His belief/faith (which came first) was reflected outwardly by his work (which followed). Works are post hoc ergo propter hoc. They follow faith, therefore they are caused by faith.

James says this explicitly when he says, "and his faith was made complete by what he did." This is in EXACT agreement with Paul, when Paul says:
Would ya look at that??? Paul says the same thing: Justifying Faith precedes works. The works are prepared in advance for us to do.

If we refuse to do them? Must not have been justifying faith, then. Or perhaps we just need some encourgaement, as James is doing with his readers...

We clearly see now that when James says, "You see that a person is justified by what he does and not by faith alone," he is referring to a package deal, but he is absolutely NOT saying "works" contribute to salvation. He cannot be saying that, because he has already said (in vs. 22) that works follow faith.

James is the EXCEPTION because he is pounding on the visibility of people's works. He is doing this becasue his readers were behaving like a bunch of self-righteous jerks. But just becasue he puts an emphasis on the visibility of works, this does not override the enormity of the rest of the NT which proclaims "faith, NOT works." James is preaching LAW and preaching it HARD, in order to convict his readers of their sin

But, Maximus, as you SO CORRECTLY stated, the exception does NOT make the rule.

Peace be with you!

Kepler
 
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CaliforniaJosiah

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It doesn't seem so complicated to this simple and not-so-bright guy...


IMO...


Is Baptism necessary?

YES - It is an Ordinance, it is commanded - and it seems a poor approach to refuse to do what has been commanded. And it is a Sacrament - a means through which the Holy Spirit works to create faith in our hearts - and it seems a poor approach to turn our backs on such a blessing.

NO - It is not a 'hoop' through which we must jump in order to be saved, rather like one of the Pillars in Islam. It is faith that saves - not the jumping through hoops. I see NOTHING in the Bible that teaches that a person with saving faith in Christ but, for some valid reason, hasn't recieved this Rite would FOR THAT REASON be eternally damned in spite of their saving faith in Christ.


I think of Baptism as necessary but not essential.



MY $0.01...


Keep the faith! Share the love!


- Josiah



.
 
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OrthodoxyUSA

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Guidelines for Baptism were outlined by the Apostles in the Didache.

Chapter 7. Concerning Baptism. And concerning baptism, baptize this way: Having first said all these things, baptize into the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, in living water. But if you have no living water, baptize into other water; and if you cannot do so in cold water, do so in warm. But if you have neither, pour out water three times upon the head into the name of Father and Son and Holy Spirit. But before the baptism let the baptizer fast, and the baptized, and whoever else can; but you shall order the baptized to fast one or two days before.

From: http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/didache-roberts.html

Forgive me....
 
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KEPLER

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CalJoe---

You are a quasi-Lutheran who attends an RC congregation, and you dared to use the word "ordinance"?



Kepler
 
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Cliff2

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We are to follow the example that Jesus gave us.

Jesus was baptised to set an example to each of us.

Did Jesus need to be baptised?

No, there was no sin for Him to be repent of or to be cleansed and have a change of heart.

Now go forward about three and a half years to the cross.

There are two robbers there as well as Jesus Christ.

One of them accpeted Jesus as his Saviour, the other did not.

There was no chance for the one who had accepted Jesus to be baptised.

The record in Scripture says that he will saved.

So in this case there is no reason to believe they would not be saved.
 
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eladoni

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please re read my post, is shows that it is only unbelief that condemns.
 
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Rebirth In Flames

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I said it at the start of this thread, and I’ll say it again!
Found this quote by Albert Einstein that I believe pertains to a few of you, “If you can’t explain something simply, you don’t understand it well.” Therefore, writing books-of-a-response to explain the complexities of baptism, really proves that you have no idea what you’re talking about.
 
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Maximus

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Jig said:
  • The thief on the cross was not baptized, yet was saved. (Luke 23:43)
Once again, you are making a mistake by making an exception the rule.

God is merciful. The repentant thief, who obviously had faith in Christ, had no opportunity to be baptized.

The Lord does not require something of someone that is impossible for him.

For the vast majority of us, however, baptism is possible and necessary.

It is the way to be born again (John 3:5), to have one's sins washed away.

That is why the Church Fathers referred to baptism as the "laver of regeneration."

Jig said:
The Gentiles in Caesarea were baptized AFTER they were saved. (Acts 10:44-48)

Cornelius and the other Gentile believers received the Holy Spirit just prior to baptism. The Lord gave them the Holy Spirit very visibly, with the gift of tongues, in order to show St. Peter and the other Jewish believers that the Gospel was intended for the Gentiles, as well as the Jews.

Notice what followed almost immediately?

Water baptism.

Thus what our Lord Jesus Christ had said, "Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God" (John 3:5), was in no way compromised or abrogated.

Again you are attempting to make a very special exception - the opening up of the Apostolic mission to the Gentiles - the rule.

Jig said:
Jesus Himself did not baptize (John 4), a strange omission if baptism were essential for salvation.

What "omission"? Jesus Himself commanded baptism (John 3:5, Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15-16) and said that no one could enter the kingdom of God unless he is born of water and the Spirit (John 3:5).

Jesus did not personally preach the Gospel to every person in the world either.

Yet that, coupled with baptism, is what He commanded His Church to do, and that is how the vast majority of those who are saved are saved.

Jig said:
Paul thanked God that he baptized very few of the Corinthians (1 Cor. 1:14-16), an impossible thanksgiving if baptism was necessary for salvation.

Why?

Does that mean he neglected to insure that converts were baptized?

Where does St. Paul say that baptism is merely symbolic or that it is not regenerative?

Jig said:
Baptism is connected with death and burial in the NT, not with spiritual birth.

Death and burial - and rising again - with Christ are spiritual birth!

Who dies?

The "old man."

Who rises to new life? The new creation (the regenerate man) in Christ.


I realize that you interpret the Bible through the prism of a Baptist-type tradition.

But you should understand that no early Christians thought as you do. Those who wrote about baptism saw it as the "laver of regeneration," not as a mere symbolic show.

Jig said:
Now lets focus on context.
Jig said:
Concerning the above verses.
  • Concerning John 3:5: If water can mean the Holy Spirit in Chapter 7 way not in Chapter 3?
Are you saying that John 3:5 should read like this?

"Jesus answered, "Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of Spirit and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.' "

Does that make sense?

You mentioned the word context.

A good word to remember, especially with regard to John 3:5, which actually says -

John 3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

Jig said:
Concerning Acts 22:16: It's not the baptism in this verse that is washing away sins, it is the calling on the name of the Lord. We see this proved in Acts 2:21 and Rom. 10:13.

Here's what that verse says.

Acts 22:16 And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.

Notice the juxtaposition of the word baptize and the phrase and wash away thy sins.

It doesn't say, "Call on the name of the Lord and wash away your sins."

It says, "Arise and be baptized, and wash away your sins . . ."

That juxtaposition is especially pointed in Greek, where the word baptizo means, among other things, to wash.

St. Paul, to whom the instruction of Acts 22:16 was directed, already had faith and had repented. What further need had he to "wash away" his sins, if baptism is merely the symbol of what has already occurred through repentance and faith?

Had he not already called on the name of the Lord?

No, even though he had faith and had repented of his sins, Saul of Tarsus (Paul) needed the "laver of regeneration" - baptism - to be truly born again and wash away his sins.


Here's what that verse actually says.

1Peter 3:21 The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ

Speaking of context, what did the verse before it say?

1Peter 3:20 Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.

Oops! There's that pesky word water again!

So, looking at 1 Peter 3:21 in context, we can see that St. Peter was saying that Noah's ark was a figure of baptism, which saves us, not because it washes off the dirt that is on our flesh, but because it washes away our sins and gives us a clean conscience.

In baptism we are "born of water and of the Spirit" (John 3:5).

Jig said:
Concerning Mark 16:16: Baptism is not a condition of salvation, but is an outward proclamation that the person has been saved.

The Scripture nowhere says that, and neither do any of the Fathers.

One must be baptized to be saved and enter the kingdom of heaven (John 3:5).

Christ commanded it.

The only exceptions exist for those who, through no fault of their own, are unable to be baptized.

Such cases are rare.

Asserting that baptism and the Eucharist are mere ceremonial symbols - a public profession of faith and a symbolic memorial - reduces them to empty forms.

It puts one in mind of 2 Timothy 3:5 -

"Having a form of godliness, but denying the power thereof: from such turn away."
 
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IgnatiusOfAntioch

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Jig said:
The thief on the cross was not baptized, yet was saved.

What makes you think Dismas wasn't baptized? It does not say that in the Bible. Your extra-biblical assumptions are leading you into error my friend.

Peace.
 
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KEPLER

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I find it interesting that you did not even try to support this with Scripture. Perhaps because there is no Scripture that supports this position? (Is that short enough? Would Einstein approve?)

You know, Einstein was actually paraphrasing Wittgenstein.
Tractatus logico-philosophicus said:
Whereof one cannot speak, thereof one must be silent.
However, neither Einstein nor Wittgenstein would say that the corrollary was true: "If you say it with only a few words, you MUST know what you're talking about!" Rubbish, of course.

Rebirth In Flames said:
I should add to his reputation for being a perfect illustration for me in the post I wrote right before his last one… but he already has over 7,000 so I’ll just wave.

So, we want short do we? Okay:
Peter said:
This baptism now saves you.

5 words.

Kepler
 
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Maximus

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Rebirth In Flames said:
I should add to his reputation for being a perfect illustration for me in the post I wrote right before his last one… but he already has over 7,000 so I’ll just wave.

Actually, I think I explained myself pretty simply.

I felt it necessary to answer Jig's objections, and that made the post a bit longer than I would like.

I apologize for that.

Lately I have come to realize that it is usually better to post without quoting one's opponents.

Of course, I am contradicting myself since I quoted your post, but I wanted to answer it.

I may be violating my own new rule again soon because there is another post in this thread I want to answer (maybe).

If Einstein had been a Christian and had really known the faith, he might have said something like this:

Those who reduce the sacraments to mere symbolic "ordinances" don't really understand them.

That simple enough for you?
 
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IgnatiusOfAntioch

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GraceInHim said:
If Jesus was baptized, why not us? and

One might also add, John 3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

Do you believe that Jesus was telling the Truth?



 
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IgnatiusOfAntioch

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The obvious answer is, in order to get to the Truth of the matter.

John 3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

There is no arguing over whether Jesus meant water, that is what He said. Do you believe what Jesus said? Please answer with a (yes) or (no).


 
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GraceInHim

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IgnatiusOfAntioch said:
One might also add, John 3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

Do you believe that Jesus was telling the Truth?



Yes the water, then comes the spirit.. this came to the Disciples way after.. the word Disciple says alot.. this is something more people should do...
 
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