I know it's wrong for a married man to lust over another woman and for a single man to lust over a married woman, but is it also wrong for a single man to lust over a single woman and if so, why is it a sin?
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I know it's wrong for a married man to lust over another woman and for a single man to lust over a married woman, but is it also wrong for a single man to lust over a single woman and if so, why is it a sin?
How do Christians get married then, seeing as you're not allowed to be attracted to someone?
I know it's wrong for a married man to lust over another woman and for a single man to lust over a married woman, but is it also wrong for a single man to lust over a single woman and if so, why is it a sin?
One good thing about being an atheist now is that I can look at a woman without feeling guilty. This lust law in the Bible is totally unrealistic.
Better to be a bad Christian and a good person than being a bad person but a good Christian
How do Christians get married then, seeing as you're not allowed to be attracted to someone?
It really must be torment for Christians when they meet other single Christians they are attracted to. One good thing about being an atheist now is that I can look at a woman without feeling guilty.
This lust law in the Bible is totally unrealistic.
Lust involves the objectification of the other. It treats them as a thing rather than as someone whose body expresses a person who is an icon of God.I know it's wrong for a married man to lust over another woman and for a single man to lust over a married woman, but is it also wrong for a single man to lust over a single woman and if so, why is it a sin?
That's not what I was thinking, and it's a bit of a leap to get to that from what I said. "X involves Y and is therefore Z" can't reasonably be understood to be mean "no Y, therefore no Z.So then by that definition, anything that doesn't reduce the other to an object, isn't sin.
That's not what I was thinking, and it's a bit of a leap to get to that from what I said. "X involves Y and is therefore Z" can't reasonably be understood to be mean "no Y, therefore no Z.
But now that you mention it, I'm having a difficult time thinking of a sin that doesn't in some way involve treating a person as an object.
I know it's wrong for a married man to lust over another woman and for a single man to lust over a married woman, but is it also wrong for a single man to lust over a single woman and if so, why is it a sin?
If you really respected the other person or yourself, you wouldn't be having sexual relations outside of marriage.As I understand the Greek of Mat 5:28, "lust" is an evil desire. You can argue that it could be translated as wanting to possess the other person, and I've said that at times. But to be fair, the term is pretty vague, and might well refer to any improper desire.
Wanting to treat a partner as an object of gratification is a common way to do this. You cam argue that in the end all improper sexual desire works out to using someone for gratification, which is probably what you mean. But Christians have normally felt that sex is intended for marriage, and thus all extra-marital sex is improper, even if it isn't adulterous, and respects both people. Jesus' statement probably can't be used to reject that, although it doesn't explicitly support it either. It's expecting too much to get an entire sexual ethics from the definition of one word.
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