Why is the correct translation for John 8:58 "I am" (egō eimi) when using the exact same phrase Yeshua said "I am he" or "I am the man" in John 9:9?
context.
In John 8 it is ontology
51 Truly, truly I say to you, if anyone follows My word, he will never see death.” 52 The Jews said to Him, “Now we know that You have a demon. Abraham died, and the prophets
as well; and
yet You say, ‘If anyone follows My word, he will never taste of death.’ 53 You are not greater than our father Abraham, who died, are You? The prophets died too. Whom do You make Yourself
out to be?” 54 Jesus answered, “If I glorify Myself, My glory is nothing; it is My Father who glorifies Me, of whom you say, ‘He is our God’; 55 and you have not come to know Him, but I know Him. And if I say that I do not know Him, I will be a liar like you; but I do know Him, and I follow His word. 56 Your father Abraham was overjoyed that he would see My day, and he saw
it and rejoiced.” 57 So the Jews said to Him, “You are not yet fifty years old, and You have seen Abraham?” 58 Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly I say to you, before Abraham was born,
I am.” 59 Therefore they picked up stones to throw at Him, but Jesus hid Himself and left the temple
grounds.
To make the statement "I am HE" makes no sense in vs 58. But to use the term that God the Son used at the burning bush when speaking to Moses "I AM" - is to claim the name of God which is why they wanted to then stone Him for claiming it.
Hebrew and Greek are more context sensitive than English.