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Not very good. We were created with a desire and a propensity to do evil. If we hadn't been, Eve never would have ate from that confounded tree.God lovingly made all good.
Can you prove an objective/absolute 'moral'? If yes, how would you go about doing so?
I know, but consider this: should they?
I think that any reading of the Bible - which purports to revelation of the character of God - allows for an omniscient, omnipotent, ominbenevolent and omnipresent deity.
@Tree of Life , I'm surprised that you don't think the problem of evil is a problem. Which of the responses in this Wikipedia link matches your thinking?
Problem of evil - Wikipedia
How about: "We should never believe in an absolute moral norm unless we have proper proof."
Or how about: Please demonstrate an 'absolute moral norm'; and prove it?
Please remember, this topic is 'The Problem of Evil'. If morals are absolute, please define one absolute 'evil'?
Wouldn't you agree that this norm is absolute:
"We should never believe in an absolute moral norm without sufficient proof."
Not quite sure exactly what you are asking me? Are you asking me if I agree with your presented statement?
I've presented you with a normative statement. My statement is:
"We should never believe in an absolute moral norm without sufficient proof."
This is a normative statement because it's a should or ought statement. It's prescriptive.
I'm claiming that this norm is objective in the sense that it's true regardless of our thoughts or feelings.
I'm wondering if you agree that this norm is objective.
I'm asking about 'morals'. You are asking me about an amoral assessment in logicIt neither encompasses morality or immorality.
My statement carries a certain moral force. If it is the case that you ought not believe something without proof or evidence, this is a moral ought. It would be morally irresponsible for you to believe something without proof or evidence.
For example, if all the data and evidence suggests that COVID 19 is a seriously dangerous disease and you should comply with public health measures, it would be irresponsible for you to believe otherwise.
This is an epistemological norm but it certainly carries moral force.
Don't you agree that we ought not believe in something without sufficient proof or evidence?
As I suspected, I don't think you currently possess the capacities to engage with these kinds of questions. See you in another thread!You appear confused. Your confusion is neither 'moral' nor 'immoral'. Thus, qualifies as an amoral construct, as you would have no alternative agenda.
And/or you are trying to throw off the sent, so you do not have to address the question(s) presented. For which, I could then constitute as 'immoral'. But I'm a moral relativist, so what do I know?
Either way, it would sure be nice if you would stop stalling here... 4th attempt:
- Name for me one absolute evil
- Prove it
As I suspected, I don't think you currently possess the capacities to engage with these kinds of questions. See you in another thread!
Everything needs to start with the objective.I would answer the logical problem by showing that if God has a morally sufficient reason for allowing evil then there is no problem. It would go like this:
1. An all-good and all-powerful God would not allow evil to exist without a morally sufficient reason.
2. Evil exists.
3. Therefore, if an all-good and all-powerful God exists, he must have a morally sufficient reason for allowing evil.
Is it possible that God has a morally sufficient reason to allow evil to exist? I don't see why this is impossible. I do have some theodicies in mind if anyone is interested in looking at theodicies.
I would answer the evidential problem by showing its hidden premise:
1. There appear to be instances of gratuitous evil that exist.
2. (Hidden premise) If there appear to be instances of gratuitous evil, then there are instances of gratuitous evil.
3. An all-good and all-powerful God would not allow gratuitous evil to exist.
4. Therefore, most probably there is no all-good and all-powerful God.
The premise to challenge here is obviously premise 2. Just because something appears to be gratuitous, does that mean that it certainly is gratuitous? How would we know? Is it possible that God has a morally sufficient reason for allowing every instance of evil that we don't know about? We may be able to offer theodicies and explanations for some instances, but we admit that we cannot explain all instances. But just because we cannot explain them, does that mean that God cannot have a morally sufficient reason that is unbeknownst to us? I don't see why this would be. It's entirely possible that God has morally sufficient reasons for allowing evil that I don't know about or cannot understand.
I don’t think it is a challenge to Christianity but I do think it flies in the face of an Omnibelevolant god.We are entering into a new section on the Problem of Evil. I really don't think that the Problem of Evil poses a serious challenge to Christian faith but I'd love to discuss it here. If you think that the Problem of Evil is somehow a serious challenge to Christianity, how would you state the problem and why do you think it's a challenge?
I don’t think it is a challenge to Christianity but I do think it flies in the face of an Omnibelevolant god.
What God made Job experience was not beneficent.
What exactly does "omni-benevolent" mean? I would say that God is all-good in the sense that he is not at all evil and he is good in all that he does. But he does not have good will toward absolutely everything. God intends to destroy evil people, for example.
Again, 6th request. Define 'evil'.
This sounds like a slightly different question. I don't think that I need to define evil since I'm not the one alleging that there is a Problem of Evil.
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