Hi all,
Just a quick hello and a question for discussion! I just signed up for the forums here and before discovering this forum for Methodists, I inadvertently responded to a post in the Fundamentalists forum on sinless perfection ... but its ok, I didn't get told off!
It did get me to open my Bible though and start thinking about the subject. I was raised in the Holiness Movement tradition (for those not familiar its a tradition that grew from Methodism with a focus on perfection, and a second work of grace that brings this about). I did struggle with being told by elder members of the church that they were "perfected" when as a young man I would struggle day to day with all manner of sins and frailties, but I will admit at the time I did not have an understanding of what they meant.
So I looked up those famous verses in Phillipians last night to have another read, and noted that in Greek (no I don't .. I just have a side by side translation!) that the same basic word is used for perfect here:
Php 3:12
Not as though I had already attained, either were already perfect: but I follow after, if that I may apprehend that for which also I am apprehended of Christ Jesus.
.. as is used here:
Php 3:15
Let us therefore, as many as be perfect, be thus minded: and if in any thing ye be otherwise minded, God shall reveal even this unto you.
.. which suggests to me that Paul counted some of the church at Philippi as being perfected already - and gave advice on how to counter division of opinion amongst those whom grace has perfected.
My problem was with the NIV translation of the word that I read. They chose to translate the word "perfect" in 3:15 as "mature", thus removing (in my simplistic view) the inference that Paul is making. Is it right to do this? The word is basically the same word in my Greek bible, so I see no justification for translating it differently ...
The rather worrying side is that I have read the NIV for most of my life, and only recently embraced other translations. It makes me wonder where else subtle changes in translation could lead to misunderstandings of teachings? Or where else a particular translation reflects (possibly) the doctrinal bias of the person who did the translating - perhaps unconconsciously, but perhaps deliberately. I see maturity and perfection as two different things, but the translation in the NIV does not ring true with me to the original text.
Sorry for rambling post ..!
Just a quick hello and a question for discussion! I just signed up for the forums here and before discovering this forum for Methodists, I inadvertently responded to a post in the Fundamentalists forum on sinless perfection ... but its ok, I didn't get told off!
It did get me to open my Bible though and start thinking about the subject. I was raised in the Holiness Movement tradition (for those not familiar its a tradition that grew from Methodism with a focus on perfection, and a second work of grace that brings this about). I did struggle with being told by elder members of the church that they were "perfected" when as a young man I would struggle day to day with all manner of sins and frailties, but I will admit at the time I did not have an understanding of what they meant.
So I looked up those famous verses in Phillipians last night to have another read, and noted that in Greek (no I don't .. I just have a side by side translation!) that the same basic word is used for perfect here:
Php 3:12
Not as though I had already attained, either were already perfect: but I follow after, if that I may apprehend that for which also I am apprehended of Christ Jesus.
.. as is used here:
Php 3:15
Let us therefore, as many as be perfect, be thus minded: and if in any thing ye be otherwise minded, God shall reveal even this unto you.
.. which suggests to me that Paul counted some of the church at Philippi as being perfected already - and gave advice on how to counter division of opinion amongst those whom grace has perfected.
My problem was with the NIV translation of the word that I read. They chose to translate the word "perfect" in 3:15 as "mature", thus removing (in my simplistic view) the inference that Paul is making. Is it right to do this? The word is basically the same word in my Greek bible, so I see no justification for translating it differently ...
The rather worrying side is that I have read the NIV for most of my life, and only recently embraced other translations. It makes me wonder where else subtle changes in translation could lead to misunderstandings of teachings? Or where else a particular translation reflects (possibly) the doctrinal bias of the person who did the translating - perhaps unconconsciously, but perhaps deliberately. I see maturity and perfection as two different things, but the translation in the NIV does not ring true with me to the original text.
Sorry for rambling post ..!