Have you also wondered why in Ex12, God only mentioned Passover and circumcision and did not include the "socalled" eternal sabbath as an ordinance that strangers would also keep forever?
Exd 12:48And when a stranger shall sojourn with thee, and will keep the passover to the LORD, let all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near and keep it; and he shall be as one that is born in the land: for no uncircumcised person shall eat thereof.
Could it be because sabbath was not given as yet?
Why is circumcision clearly mentioned to Abraham as an everlasting covenant and no mention about sabbath?
Gen 17:13He that is born in thy house, and he that is bought with thy money, must needs be circumcised: and my covenant shall be in your flesh for an everlasting covenant.
Why is circumcision clearly revealed as an ordinance,
Gen(14)Exd(2) but not one word about anyone keeping sabbath?
Gen 21:4And Abraham circumcised his son Isaac being eight days old, as God had commanded him.
If sabbath is a creation ordinance that was lost during the years of slavery, (rather than nonexistant as yet) why was circumcision which began with Abraham emediately reestablished going forward before leaving Egypt and no mention of the infamous sabbath until Ex16?
CRIB