Hello all
I was hoping for some clarification on a certain topic.
I'm a new Christian, currently working my way through the Bible, although I still have most of the OT to read, so I apologise in advance if my question seems ignorant. I may have misunderstood.
In the OT, I'm aware that it talks of 'transfering' sin to an animal that would then be sacrificed, and the blood of that sacrifice was the payment for a particular sin.
However, my understanding is that Christ died for all the sin of the world - past present and future, so my question is, was such animal sacrifice 'condoned' by God in the OT?
Thanks
Astral

I was hoping for some clarification on a certain topic.
I'm a new Christian, currently working my way through the Bible, although I still have most of the OT to read, so I apologise in advance if my question seems ignorant. I may have misunderstood.
In the OT, I'm aware that it talks of 'transfering' sin to an animal that would then be sacrificed, and the blood of that sacrifice was the payment for a particular sin.
However, my understanding is that Christ died for all the sin of the world - past present and future, so my question is, was such animal sacrifice 'condoned' by God in the OT?
Thanks
Astral