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Origins of the name "God"

iitb

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The following comes from Messiah: Volume 3 by Avi ben Mordechai:
In any language other than Hebrew, the term "G-d" comes down to us through numerous pagan cultures and does not accurately represent the Eternal One of the Hebrew scriptures. Although perhaps you have come to know him by the term "G-d," for the sake of clarity you need to know that "G-d" is actually a term etymologically connected to a pagan deity called Baal Gawd. According to the highly respected work of Reverend Alexander Hislop who, in 1916, Published The Two Babylons, Gawd was the sun divinity of the Saxons, and L-rd was the moon divinity of the Arabians and Saxons.

A more recent late 20th century publication from Christian author C.J. Koster, who wrote Come Out of Her My People, an outstanding piece of research, well-organized and well-written on the etymology of certain religious words in the English Language, the term G-d was adopted as the name of the One Supreme Being of Israel after the conversion of the Teutonic races to Christianity. This is also confirmed in Koster's quotation of Webster's 20th Anniversary Dictionary, Unabridged, 1st Edition, where it is documented:

The word ("God") is common to Teutonic tongues. . . it was applied to heathen deities and later, when the Teutonic peoples were converted to Christianity, the word was elevated to the Christian sense

So, my question is: In light of this information, is it proper to refer to YHVH as "Lord" or "God?"
 

Atkin

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This is very interesting.

I think I have a solution. What we must realise is that God looked after all peoples in the ancient times, but He only chose one group for his plan for humanity.
Those other peoples referred to as pagans had a distorted view of who the Creator was so what they referred to as God was some creator that they did not really have a good understanding of DUE TO THEIR IGNORANCE.

Hence, now that they have been educated spiritually, they now make the correction and refer to the Creator as God.

Of course, we do not know whether our Creator likes the term God.

I believe that in the end, it all boils down to who you refer to as God but if our Creator is very particular about how we should call Him, then we better call Him by the name that He wishes to be called.
 
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The following errors occured when this post was submitted:

This thing here screwed up my post, and my post was so lovely. I guess I will have to retype it without the pictures.

YHVH is YHVH, God is God, and lord is lord.

It is nor proper to change "YHVH" for God or lord. The name YHVH is too glorious to be changed to such a weak title as "lord." Lord and master are interchangeable.
 
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I also find it very interesting that there are quite a few people out there that will argue that the Messiah's name is not "Jesus," it's "Y'shua."

Three ways (that I am aware of) to spell Ha'Mashiyach's name in Koine Greek: Ihsou, Ihsous, and Ihsoun.

Yeshua is Joshua.
Yehoshua is Jehoshua.
Yeshua is short for Yehoshua.

Around the time the 1611 KJV was written, there didn't exist any "J" in English. It was "Iesus." The later on the "J" letter was adopted into the English alphabet, and "Iesus" became "Jesus."

His name was not "Yahshua", nor "Yahushua", but instead was "Yehoshua." I would post the Hebrew for you, but this board settings won't allow me to.
 
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simchat_torah

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Yeshua (or Y'shua) is literally taken from the Aramaic.... considering his tounge of the day was Aramaic I tend to use Y'shua.

However, the Hebrew translation of Y'shua would be Yehoshua, thus I have no problem with that either.

-Yafet.
 
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iitb

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Hmmm, I think I derailed my own thread. That's a first for me!;)

Anyway, I wasn't disputing the name of the Messiah (I agree that "Yeshua" is correct), my point was that I've seen a few heated debates involving "Y'shua" vs. "Jesus," yet it's assumed that we can call YHVH whatever we want.
 
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SonWorshipper

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Let me ask this, is there a specific name other than the Tetragrammaton (sp?) or is there only one name under heaven? I noticed something recently, and that is when people get baptized they are baptized under three persons, but not three names:

Matthew 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father,and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

Now I am not sure exactly about these aritcles if they are in the Greek or not but what if it should say:

Baptizing them in the name of the Father and Son and Holy Spirit?

Notice that the translation ( first) says name, singular, not plural, it doesn't say "baptizing them in the name(s) of the Father , Son and Holy Ghost" but just name, so that means to me that there is but one name, ONE, Echad.
 
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simchat_torah

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While I'm not inclined to declare the words 'god' and 'lord' as explicitly evil, this IS why I tend to use the dash... combined with a second reason, to give respect to the name of G-d.

I know its almost a conflict in definition, but I think both are equally powerful in my mind. I use the dash for respect, but as well, I use the dash because of the origins of the word g o d.

shalom,
yafet
 
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ShirChadash

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SonWorshipper said:
Notice that the translation ( first) says name, singular, not plural, it doesn't say "baptizing them in the name(s) of the Father , Son and Holy Ghost" but just name, so that means to me that there is but one name, ONE, Echad.
Would anyone agree that it would be sufficient to phrase this as: "baptise in the name of YHVH, His "Salvation" (lit., Yeshua), and His Spirit (Ruach Elohim)..." ?
 
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