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Unfortunately I have to agree.Again - all of that is agenda-driven.
I am going with your opinion, or the mainstream Christian and Judaic tradition for the last 3,000 + years ?That's correct. Every ancient text I've browsed, not once do they use a loving monogamous relationship in their examples of "homosexual sin". Not once. Never.
Actually, the opinion changed around 450AD if you track the Ancient Texts.I am going with your opinion, or the mainstream Christian and Judaic tradition for the last 3,000 + years ?
They translated the meaning of the passages to reflect the accurate translation and proper Christian Judaic values.
Please get over it.
Are you referring to the sin of prejudice?Keep reminding them of these things. Warn them before God against quarreling about words; it is of no value, and only ruins those who listen. 2 Timothy 2:14
As has been said, it serves no purpose to do a Word study with folks who are looking for excuses to justify sin.
And neither does TheFathersDaughterNo and I don't need to, they were already judged by the editor and publisher and the pastors of the congragations that use them.
I would only need qualifications to refute them because their authenticity has already been certified by academia.
Using Genesis to argue in favor of prejudice suffers from a massive weaknessDoes too. Jesus and the OT only refer to a marriage as being between a man and a woman.
The Ten Commandments forbids adultery.
Homosexual relationships and sex is adultery and scandal against the sacrament of marriage.
Appeal to history. Just because discrimination was acceptable in the past does not mean that it is acceptable now.I am going with your opinion, or the mainstream Christian and Judaic tradition for the last 3,000 + years ?
They translated the meaning of the passages to reflect the accurate translation and proper Christian Judaic values.
Please get over it.
Does too. Jesus and the OT only refer to a marriage as being between a man and a woman.
The Ten Commandments forbids adultery.
Homosexual relationships and sex is adultery and scandal against the sacrament of marriage.
Also, homosexuality as we know it today, and egalitarian and loving partnership, was unknown to the Hebrews (as I said elsewhere, the word "homosexual" wasn't even coined until the 1800's), so how could the bible condemn "homosexuality" as we know it today...It Cant!
So, if the Bible and ancestral Christian communities did not condemn homosexuality, then why was it unknown by the Hebrews ? Was it because it carried the sentence of death in their culture and was frowned upon ?
The Bible is God's message to His people on how to live life. That is why scripture regarding homosexuality is miniscule.
Doesn't sound like a very good translation to me. The Greek word "porneia" is not that easily translated. The Bible only condemns homosexual rape and homosexual temple prostitution, not loving homosexual relationships.
I'll stick with my New Oxford, but thank you for the recommendation. I haven't been a Bible reader since a young age, like many members of CF, and so I appreciate something easy to read with study notes.
In Leviticus only male on male rape is considered to be an abomination (strange how male of female rape is not) not homosexuality itself.Sure the OT does, and it also condemns eating pork, shellfish, wearing polyester blends, etc. and calls them abominations using the same Hebrew word (to'evah) that calls "homosexuality" an abomination. So, if both are considered the same type of abomination or are detestable, why do you selectively pick and choose what part of scripture to follow. When you become a kosher Christian who follows halakhic practices, then you can do the finger pointing???
Now, you or someone else will tell me that food has to do with ceremonial law and we aren't bound to follow it, right??? Funny, again, the same word calling those foods abominations or detestable is the same word used to supposedly condemn homosexuality...Hmm...
Also, homosexuality as we know it today, and egalitarian and loving partnership, was unknown to the Hebrews (as I said elsewhere, the word "homosexual" wasn't even coined until the 1800's), so how could the bible condemn "homosexuality" as we know it today...It Cant!
In Leviticus only male on male rape is considered to be an abomination (strange how male of female rape is not) not homosexuality itself.
Don't you know that evil people will not receive God's kingdom? Don't be fooled. Those who commit sexual sins will not receive the kingdom. Neither will those who worship statues of gods or commit adultery. Neither will men who are prostitutes or who commit homosexual acts. 1 COR. 6:9 NIRV
Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders 1 COR 6:9 NIV
Or [Rom 6:16] do you not know that the unrighteous will not [Acts 20:32; 1 Cor 15:50; Gal 5:21; Eph 5:5] inherit the kingdom of God? [Luke 21:8; 1 Cor 15:33; Gal 6:7; James 1:16; 1 John 3:7] Do not be deceived; [Rom 13:13; 1 Cor 5:11; Gal 5:19-21; Eph 5:5; 1 Tim 1:10; Rev 21:8; 22:15] neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor [I.e. effeminate by perversion] effeminate, nor homosexuals, NASB 1 COR 6:9
Do you not know that the unrighteous and the wrongdoers will not inherit or have any share in the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived (misled): neither the impure and immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor those who participate in homosexuality AMPLIFIED BIBLE
“If a man practices homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman, both men have committed a detestable act. They must both be put to death, for they are guilty of a capital offense. NLT
Do you not know that the unjust [ Lk 16:10;] will not inherit God's kingdom? [ Mk 1:15; Ac 20:25;] Do not be deceived: no sexually immoral people, idolaters, [ Eph 5:5;] adulterers, [ Lk 18:11;] male prostitutes, homosexuals, [ Gn 19:5;] HOLMAN CSB
Or do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor practicing homosexuals TNIV
maybe you are ignoring the fact that the entire point of translation is to translate foreign or ancient texts into modern meaning ?Carmody...maybe you are ingnoring this...I don't know, but it would be very hard to translate a two thousand year old document as saying "homosexual" since the word "homosexual" did not exist until 18 centuries after this document was written.
"Homosexual" was not coined until the 1800's.
Now, there were a plethora of words in Greek to speak of various "homosexual" sex acts, but Paul did not ever use any of them. Instead he made up his own (arsenokoites).
Also, the word that your NASB translates as "Effiminate" does not mean "Effiminate." Ask any modern Greek speaker what "malakos" (the word the NASB translates into English as "Effiminate") and they will automatically say "Jerk-off" would be way more accurate. At least, that is what my native 1st language Greek speaker friend Sofia says...I tend to trust her more than Greek "scholars." She actually uses the language and has insight into its ancient antecedents.
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