Ok, I'm new to reformed/Calvinist views, and would like some assistance on these two verses:
Genesis 18:20-21 . . .Consequently Jehovah said: "The cry of complaint about Sod´om and Go·mor´rah, yes, it is loud, and their sin, yes, it is very heavy. I am quite determined to go down that I may see whether they act altogether according to the outcry over it that has come to me, and, if not, I can get to know it."
Genesis 22:12 And he went on to say: "Do not put out your hand against the boy and do not do anything at all to him, for now I do know that you are God-fearing in that you have not withheld your son, your only one, from me."
Now, these verses seem to indicate a Selective Foreknowledge that God uses sometimes. I am in dialogue with someone who is using these verses to prove
A: That God chooses not to know who will be saved and who will not be, because if He were to know, then the offer of Salvation to all would not be valid or honest and it would give "false hope" to millions who are not going to be saved
and B: That Jesus did NOT know Judas was going to be the one to betray Him, because if He did know who it was and chose him anyway, he would be a "sharer" in the sins of Judas, which would violate some "divine" rule of God. He uses 1Timothy 5:22 as this 'divine precedent'--"Do not lay hands on anyone hastily, nor share in other people's sins; keep yourself pure"
It's all pretty rediculous I know, but I'm just not sure how to explain those 2 verses--they do seem to show some choice in what God "knows" and doesn't "know". I'd LOVE some help from you guys here. I need a different perspective; because to be honest, alot of people I know believe this very same thing, and I'm having trouble reconsciling "omniscence" and "selective foreknowledge"
HELP!!!!!!
Genesis 18:20-21 . . .Consequently Jehovah said: "The cry of complaint about Sod´om and Go·mor´rah, yes, it is loud, and their sin, yes, it is very heavy. I am quite determined to go down that I may see whether they act altogether according to the outcry over it that has come to me, and, if not, I can get to know it."
Genesis 22:12 And he went on to say: "Do not put out your hand against the boy and do not do anything at all to him, for now I do know that you are God-fearing in that you have not withheld your son, your only one, from me."
Now, these verses seem to indicate a Selective Foreknowledge that God uses sometimes. I am in dialogue with someone who is using these verses to prove
A: That God chooses not to know who will be saved and who will not be, because if He were to know, then the offer of Salvation to all would not be valid or honest and it would give "false hope" to millions who are not going to be saved
and B: That Jesus did NOT know Judas was going to be the one to betray Him, because if He did know who it was and chose him anyway, he would be a "sharer" in the sins of Judas, which would violate some "divine" rule of God. He uses 1Timothy 5:22 as this 'divine precedent'--"Do not lay hands on anyone hastily, nor share in other people's sins; keep yourself pure"
It's all pretty rediculous I know, but I'm just not sure how to explain those 2 verses--they do seem to show some choice in what God "knows" and doesn't "know". I'd LOVE some help from you guys here. I need a different perspective; because to be honest, alot of people I know believe this very same thing, and I'm having trouble reconsciling "omniscence" and "selective foreknowledge"
HELP!!!!!!