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Meaning of 2 Cor 5:21 [moved from Ethics]

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DerelictJunction

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I didn't know what forum to put this in so I chose Ethics & Morality.

In 2 Corinthians 5:21, Paul writes:
For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.​

This seems to say that Jesus never sinned. However, I really don't know what that means in a practical sense.
Did Jesus always follow the laws of Moses throughout His entire life on Earth?

I ask this because there are several incidents documented in the Bible that seem to show Him breaking some laws.

Does "never sinned" mean something different when referring to Jesus than when referring to regular humans?
 

PsychoSarah

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Sinning means doing something God doesn't want you to do. If Jesus was also God, how could he ever do something he didn't want to?

Accidentally? I don't exactly want to trip while walking up or down stairs, but it happens sometimes.
 
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Golden Yak

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Accidentally? I don't exactly want to trip while walking up or down stairs, but it happens sometimes.

Can you sin accidentally? I would think it would require intent - willful defiance of God's will. The mental image of Jesus tripping and falling on his rear while God shakes his head and frowns disapprovingly is very funny though, thank you for that.

Even supposing accidents - God seems to hand out suspensions when he wants something that would otherwise be sinful carried out. For example, having his followers kill their enemies - normally killing is sinful. He could just have Jesus always be operating under that sort of deal for everything he ever did, even if Jesus wasn't literally God himself but a separate being.
 
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2PhiloVoid

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I didn't know what forum to put this in so I chose Ethics & Morality.

In 2 Corinthians 5:21, Paul writes:
For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.​
This seems to say that Jesus never sinned. However, I really don't know what that means in a practical sense.
Did Jesus always follow the laws of Moses throughout His entire life on Earth?

I ask this because there are several incidents documented in the Bible that seem to show Him breaking some laws.

Does "never sinned" mean something different when referring to Jesus than when referring to regular humans?

No, "never sinned" means Jesus never sinned. The verse in question just alludes to the fact that the sins of humanity were "imputed" to Jesus. He was/is 'counted' as the sum total representation of our sins.
 
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DennisTate

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I didn't know what forum to put this in so I chose Ethics & Morality.

In 2 Corinthians 5:21, Paul writes:
For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
This seems to say that Jesus never sinned. However, I really don't know what that means in a practical sense.
Did Jesus always follow the laws of Moses throughout His entire life on Earth?

I ask this because there are several incidents documented in the Bible that seem to show Him breaking some laws.

Does "never sinned" mean something different when referring to Jesus than when referring to regular humans?

Isaiah chapter 45 applies to each and every Christian...… if a Gentile king can be taken by the right hand....... and guided to do a high number of highly ethical things such as give freedom of religion to all 127 provinces of the Medo - Persian Empire........ then how much more so should Christians be held by the right hand more and more and more as our walk with Messiah Yeshua - Jesus goes on year after year after year?

Isa 45:1
¶Thus saith the LORD to his anointed, to Cyrus, whose right hand I have holden, to subdue nations before him; and I will loose the loins of kings, to open before him the two leaved gates; and the gates shall not be shut;
..........Isa 45:4
For Jacob my servant's sake, and Israel mine elect, I have even called thee by thy name: I have surnamed thee, though thou hast not known me.
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Isa 45:5
I am the LORD, and there is none else, there is no God beside me: I girded thee, though thou hast not known me:
 
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Inkachu

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I didn't know what forum to put this in so I chose Ethics & Morality.

In 2 Corinthians 5:21, Paul writes:
For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.​

This seems to say that Jesus never sinned. However, I really don't know what that means in a practical sense.
Did Jesus always follow the laws of Moses throughout His entire life on Earth?

I ask this because there are several incidents documented in the Bible that seem to show Him breaking some laws.

Does "never sinned" mean something different when referring to Jesus than when referring to regular humans?

The problem was that the Jewish leadership was misapplying some of Moses' laws. Anytime that Jesus was accused of breaking the Mosaic law, He was actually just ruffling the Jewish leaders' feathers. They had extended and complicated the law so that it was nearly impossible to understand or follow. They had thrown out common sense in their eagerness to best each other in being the most pious and law-abiding. For example, Jesus healed someone on the Sabbath; the Jewish leaders accused Him of "working" by doing this, and said He broke the command not to work on the Sabbath, which is preposterous. He wasn't plowing a field, He was healing someone.
 
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DerelictJunction

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The problem was that the Jewish leadership was misapplying some of Moses' laws. Anytime that Jesus was accused of breaking the Mosaic law, He was actually just ruffling the Jewish leaders' feathers. They had extended and complicated the law so that it was nearly impossible to understand or follow. They had thrown out common sense in their eagerness to best each other in being the most pious and law-abiding. For example, Jesus healed someone on the Sabbath; the Jewish leaders accused Him of "working" by doing this, and said He broke the command not to work on the Sabbath, which is preposterous. He wasn't plowing a field, He was healing someone.
I agree that many times Jesus was simply pointing out that some of the application of Moses' laws was actually breaking the intent of the law. However, in Mark 5:1-21, He heals a demoniac by allowing the demons to go into a herd of pigs. They were domesticated because they had herdsmen. He destroyed the pigs which were someone else's property. Isn't that a sin? At the very least it violates the Golden Rule.
 
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Inkachu

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The pigs are GOD'S property. He made them. He rules creation. It doesn't violate the Golden Rule, which applies to other human beings, not pigs. Can I tell you exactly why Jesus allowed them to possess the pigs? No. Do I like the fact that a herd of pigs were tormented and killed by demons? Absolutely not. Did Jesus commit a sin by what He did? NO. Just because my emotions aren't happy and comfy doesn't mean I have any place to argue with one of God's decisions.
 
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ToBeBlessed

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2 Corinthians 5:21
"For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God"

A perfect sacrifice needed to be made. Jesus, who knew no sin, took our sin upon Himself. He is our advocate who takes away the sins of the world. On Judgement Day when God looks at us, He will see His sinless Son who is an acceptable sacrifice for each of us.

With Jesus as our advocate for all of our sin, we become righteous in the eyes of God.
 
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DerelictJunction

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The pigs are GOD'S property. He made them. He rules creation. It doesn't violate the Golden Rule, which applies to other human beings, not pigs. Can I tell you exactly why Jesus allowed them to possess the pigs? No. Do I like the fact that a herd of pigs were tormented and killed by demons? Absolutely not. Did Jesus commit a sin by what He did? NO. Just because my emotions aren't happy and comfy doesn't mean I have any place to argue with one of God's decisions.
Well, human beings are GOD'S also. He made them. He rules creation. So, by your logic, Jesus could have laid waste to the entire land of Palestine, killing every man, woman and child, and still not have sinned. Your logic makes the statement about Jesus being sinless have no meaning at all because He could do anything and not be sinning.
This wasn't about the pigs except that they were someone else's property. It was about the person whose property was destroyed. If I were to destroy your automobile, would I have sinned?
If you lived in Jesus' time, would it be a sin for Him to destroy your cart and oxen?
It looks to me that if a human had done what Jesus did, it would be considered a sin.
 
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DerelictJunction

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2 Corinthians 5:21
"For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God"

A perfect sacrifice needed to be made. Jesus, who knew no sin, took our sin upon Himself. He is our advocate who takes away the sins of the world. On Judgement Day when God looks at us, He will see His sinless Son who is an acceptable sacrifice for each of us.

With Jesus as our advocate for all of our sin, we become righteous in the eyes of God.
The question was not "What does 2 Cor 5:21 state?"; I can read too.
The OP is a discussion on what 2 Cor 5:21 means in light of the actions of Jesus as written in the Bible.
 
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ToBeBlessed

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With Adam and Eve came sin into this world.

God, being perfect can not tolerate sin. Through Adam and Eve each person inherited original sin.

In the OT, Israel/Jews were given the Law. The 10 commandments which if kept would have kept them from sin, but none could keep the law.

God realized that since no one could keep the law, that we needed an advocate for our sin. One without sin that was innocent could take on the sins of the others. Jesus was that innocent sacrifice and when He died on the cross, He took all the sins of mankind upon Himself. He paid our sin debt in full. That is why He said 'it is finished'.

We each know that we will one day stand before God on Judgement Day and be responsible for our lives which will include our sins. On that day, those who are in Christ Jesus will have an advocate to the Father. That advocate is the lamb of God, His Son. As Christ will advocate for us and for our sin. With our sin being taken away and placed on Christ, the Father will see us not in our broken sinful state, but with all of our sin removed. We will be acceptable to the Father and able to spend eternity with our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ and the Father.
 
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DerelictJunction

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With Adam and Eve came sin into this world.

God, being perfect can not tolerate sin. Through Adam and Eve each person inherited original sin.

In the OT, Israel/Jews were given the Law. The 10 commandments which if kept would have kept them from sin, but none could keep the law.

God realized that since no one could keep the law, that we needed an advocate for our sin. One without sin that was innocent could take on the sins of the others. Jesus was that innocent sacrifice and when He died on the cross, He took all the sins of mankind upon Himself. He paid our sin debt in full. That is why He said 'it is finished'.

We each know that we will one day stand before God on Judgement Day and be responsible for our lives which will include our sins. On that day, those who are in Christ Jesus will have an advocate to the Father. That advocate is the lamb of God, His Son. As Christ will advocate for us and for our sin. With our sin being taken away and placed on Christ, the Father will see us not in our broken sinful state, but with all of our sin removed. We will be acceptable to the Father and able to spend eternity with our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ and the Father.
You are preaching and not actually addressing the point.

In light of the fact that the Bible records Jesus performing actions that would be sins if performed by a human man, what does 2 Cor 5:21 mean when it implies that Jesus was sinless?
 
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ToBeBlessed

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You are preaching and not actually addressing the point.

In light of the fact that the Bible records Jesus performing actions that would be sins if performed by a human man, what does 2 Cor 5:21 mean when it implies that Jesus was sinless?

What verses are you referring to that show that Jesus sinned? You haven't proven that point, I have no idea what you are referring to? You need to get to the root of the answer
 
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DerelictJunction

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What verses are you referring to that show that Jesus sinned? You haven't proven that point, I have no idea what you are referring to? You need to get to the root of the answer
Mark 5:1-17, Jesus destroys another person's property by sending demons into a herd of pigs. Read it and think of it in terms of you being the owner of the pigs.
 
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DerelictJunction

Guest
Jesus cast the demons out of the man. The demons went into the swine. That is not a sin on Jesus part.
You do not seem as familiar with the passage as I would have thought.
Here are some pertinent verses from the story.

Luke 5:6-13
6. When he saw Jesus from a distance, he ran and bowed down before him; 7. and he shouted at the top of his voice, “What have you to do with me, Jesus, Son of the Most High God? I adjure you by God, do not torment me.” 8. For he had said to him, “Come out of the man, you unclean spirit!” 9. Then Jesus asked him, “What is your name?” He replied, “My name is Legion; for we are many.” 10 He begged him earnestly not to send them out of the country. 11. Now there on the hillside a great herd of swine was feeding; 12. and the unclean spirits[c] begged him, “Send us into the swine; let us enter them.” 13. So he gave them permission. And the unclean spirits came out and entered the swine; and the herd, numbering about two thousand, rushed down the steep bank into the sea, and were drowned in the sea.
Note the bolded part where Jesus gives them permission to and actually sends them into the swine.
Jesus is complicit in the destruction of those pigs which belonged to another person. Even if the pigs had not run into the sea, how could the herdsmen keep demon-possessed pigs?
Besides, did you think that Jesus was unaware of what was going to happen when He sent the demons into the pigs?
 
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