"And from the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven suffereth violence, and the violent take it by force."
This passage has always been a source of confusion for me. In the notes of my KJV study bible it states that violence is a passive term in the greek and is referring to the "people of the kingdom". I don't know if I agree with this, but in a sense, it's the only way it makes sense. It doesn't make sense from the standpoint that I cannot make a case in any other scripture where the "kingdom of heaven" is used in referrence to the 'people', but on the other hand, it's the only way it makes sense in context with the verse and chapter. In another sense, it makes no sense: Violence as passive? Am I just extra dense here, or can anyone make sense of this passage?
This passage has always been a source of confusion for me. In the notes of my KJV study bible it states that violence is a passive term in the greek and is referring to the "people of the kingdom". I don't know if I agree with this, but in a sense, it's the only way it makes sense. It doesn't make sense from the standpoint that I cannot make a case in any other scripture where the "kingdom of heaven" is used in referrence to the 'people', but on the other hand, it's the only way it makes sense in context with the verse and chapter. In another sense, it makes no sense: Violence as passive? Am I just extra dense here, or can anyone make sense of this passage?
