No, why? The angel was only revealing part of the plan to Joseph.
The angel's words are a definitive explanation of the very
name of Jesus. The γάρ explicitly grounds the naming. His entire identity and mission on earth are defined by this statement. So the angel's words cannot be only a partial disclosure of that mission.
"From their sins"? That exactly what Jesus will do, save the Jewish people from their sins, not every indidual Jew though. The deliverance "from their sins" clarifies what kind of salvation the Messiah brings, spiritual redemption rather than political liberation, not who is included in the scope of that salvation.
But that reading isn't grammatically defensible. The future indicative σώσει ("He will save") expresses a definite, declarative act, not an attempt, offer, or possibility. The construction σώσει τὸν λαὸν αὐτοῦ is a
promise of fulfillment, not a general intention.
So your qualification, "not every individual Jew though," can only be introduced
if defining "His people" in a way that likewise "does not include every individual Jew." Grammatically, the text doesn't allow for a subset within "His people." Whoever that phrase encompasses, their salvation is certain and complete. He
will save "His people" from their sins.
In other words, either "His people" refers to all Jews (in which case the angel's statement fails, since not all Jews are saved), or it refers to the covenant people who truly belong to Him; that is, the ones who actually are saved. The grammar itself forces that conclusion.
Why do you believe the purpose of
Matt 1:21 is to reveal the whole plan of redemption to Joseph?
Because the angel explicitly ties Jesus'
name to His
mission. The verse isn't a partial hint; it's the divine explanation of His very identity and purpose on earth: "You shall call His name Jesus,
for He will save His people from their sins."
Matt. 1:21 isn't a statement about who Jesus ministered to
first; it's a statement defining His entire
identity and
purpose on earth.
In the Gospels where "His people, My people, His own" is mentioned it always refers to the Jewish people. Why then do you think there is this exception in
Matt 1:21?
It often does, but claiming it
always refers to ethnic Israel is a stretch. Lexical precedent doesn't control referential scope when the author himself redefines the covenant category in his own narrative. What matters is how Matthew uses the term
in context, and the theological implications (like those mentioned above) of reading it ethnically in Matthew 1:21 are disastrous.
Matthew himself broadens the covenant category to include Gentiles and excludes unbelieving Jews (8:11-12; 12:48-50). John does the same: Jesus' "own" (τὰ ἐμά) are not limited to Israel, for He calls sheep "not of this fold" (10:14-16). Even John 1:11-12, which you cited, makes the point explicit: "His own" rejected Him, but
whoever received Him, Jew or Gentile, became God's true children. Yes, "His own" refers to Jews there, but the
point of the text is to redefine that. The whole point is that the true people of God is
not defined ethnically.
Luke 2:31-32, which you also cited, likewise frames Israel's glory in the inclusion of the Gentiles. The Savior from Israel brings salvation "for all peoples." The covenant community, therefore, is not
defined by national boundaries but by redemptive union with Christ. Yes, "His people" clearly refers to Israel there, but again the
point is that the
true covenant community is defined beyond national bounds.
Again, the critical issue is usage in context, not default semantics. Reading "His people" in Matt. 1:21 as merely "the Jewish nation" collapses the verse into either (1) a failed national redemption or (2) universal Jewish salvation, both of which contradict Matthew's entire theological purpose.
Also the Gospel of Matthew was primarily written to Jews. Scholars often call it the “most Jewish” of the four canonical Gospels. That gives us a reason why it was specifically pointed out in
Matt 1:21 that Jesus is the saviour of His people, the Jews.
Yes, Matthew was written
for a largely Jewish audience, but that fact does not tell us what "His people"
means here. Authorial audience and referential scope are not the same thing. Matthew's Jewish readers were precisely the ones who
needed to see that covenant membership is no longer defined ethnically but Christologically.
Hence, the "most Jewish" Gospel is also the one that most clearly dismantles Jewish exclusivism. From the Magi (Gentiles) in chapter 2, to the centurion's faith in chapter 8, to the Great Commission in chapter 28, Matthew's message is precisely that the promised Messiah of Israel brings salvation
to all nations.