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Ain't Zwinglian

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Sorry my friend, I cant see your reasoning.
Baptizo has a narrow and a wide meaning in Scripture. I take the wide meaning and you take the narrow meaning. And that is okay. The narrow meaning would mean "to immerse" and the wide meaning would mean "to wash" and also "to immerse" depending on context. Luke 11:38 the Pharisee was astonished that Jesus didn't ceremonially "wash" his hands before dinner. Baptizo is used in this passage. Likewise, in Mark 7:4, the disciples were criticized for not ceremonially "washing" their hand after coming from the market. Baptizo is used there also. All major English translations of Scripture reflect "Baptizo" can mean "to wash" in both these contexts.

Hard core immersionists state....in both Luke and Mark....Jesus and the disciples "immersed" their hands. Hence they have a narrow understanding of the word "baptizo." For the immersionist, baptizo can never mean "to wash" for if it did, one could wash there hands through sprinkling or pouring.

This is where we depart ways. May God bless you at CF.
 
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Xeno.of.athens

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That is too much of a bifurcation because the word means both wash and dip (for the purpose of washing). And there simply is no verse nor any passage in the New Testament that asserts that baptism necessitates submersion in water. One may choose to immerse, or to submerge and to do so in still or running water, using a bath, pool, or using a river or stream. One may equally choose to use water from a river or stream or to use water from a pool or lake or bath. Holy Tradition does not demand a river and submersion, not does Holy Tradition demand submersion in a pool, bath, or lake. Catholics use both immersion/submersion and pouring from either still or running water.
 
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Ain't Zwinglian

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And there simply is no verse nor any passage in the New Testament that asserts that baptism necessitates submersion in water.
Correct. No command for any mode. All administration passages in the Book of Acts are descriptive. No prescriptive passages. The mode falls under Christian liberty.
 
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tampasteve

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The practice of Mikvah "washing" or "baptism" is extra Biblical material and is not to be used to interpret Scripture.
No, the process of purification, which is all Mikveh really is, is well documented in the scriptures. It is found throughout Leviticus and Numbers. Please look back and understand that I am primarily saying that it is what would make baptism a familiar purification process to 1st century Jews. From that perspective it does not even matter if it is entirely extra-biblical, what matters is that the process of water purification would have been something that 1st century Jews did often.
Contextual a mikvah in the OT is just a container for holding any amount water.
In the most base meaning of the word, yes, but in actual context that is not accurate.
There is no NT usage of the word "Mikvah."
Irrelevant. The Bible is a single body of scripture, separating them from one another is not possible.
Baptists and American evangelicals are real big on Sola Scriptura....except when it comes to baptism as they quote both the Didache and Jewish writings of the Second and Third Centuries (CE). All extra Biblical materials.
I am not Baptist or Evangelical, so their perspective does not really impact my beliefs me. Sometimes the beliefs will match up, of course. But I do think that texts such as the Didache are very important as they can show us what was going on in the Church at that time - some of the earliest writings we have.
There are no promises attached to the Mikvah washings, or other NT ceremonial washing as in Luke 11:28 and Mark 7:4.....it is just water and no baptism.
100% agree, that is probably the most important part of what you wrote in this thread. They are simply not the same thing, nor meant to be the same thing. They are, however, both purification processes, albeit with entirely different reasons and end results. But it is supremely helpful to understand the culture and society that the Baptism ritual developed in and out of.
 
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tampasteve

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That is too much of a bifurcation because the word means both wash and dip (for the purpose of washing). And there simply is no verse nor any passage in the New Testament that asserts that baptism necessitates submersion in water.
I agree 100%.
 
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Ain't Zwinglian

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Irrelevant. The Bible is a single body of scripture, separating them from one another is not possible.


I disagree. From the point of view of Christianity the Old Testament is interpreted through the lens of the New Testament and the New Testament is interpreted though the lens provided by the life and teachings of Jesus. The supreme revelation of God is the Incarnation.
 
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tampasteve

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I disagree. From the point of view of Christianity the Old Testament is interpreted through the lens of the New Testament and the New Testament is interpreted though the lens provided by the life and teachings of Jesus.
I disagree that they should be parsed into separate scriptures, to do so risks elevating one above the rest. The body of Scripture as a whole should be used to interpret the whole, one is not elevated above the other.
The supreme revelation of God is the Incarnation.
Indeed it is.
 
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Ain't Zwinglian

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I disagree that they should be parsed into separate scriptures, to do so risks elevating one above the rest. The body of Scripture as a whole should be used to interpret the whole, one is not elevated above the other.
I disagree.
 
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RileyG

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100%
 
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bling

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Yes. Baptism is not supposed to be repeated. Indeed thats why the Nicene Creed says “i confess one baptism for the remission of sins”
Which one is right?
Baby baptism is not adult believer immersion baptism, so is baby baptism real baptism?
 
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bling

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Where are there Biblical examples of threefold immersions since the example of baptism being like Christ's going into the tomb was one time?
 
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bling

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John 4:53 Then the father realized that this was the exact time at which Jesus had said to him, “Your son will live.” So he and his whole household believed.

1 Timothy 3:12 A deacon must be faithful to his wife and must manage his children and his household well.

Matthew 24:45 “Who then is the faithful and wise servant, whom the master has put in charge of the servants in his household to give them their food at the proper time?

Genesis 36:6 Esau took his wives and sons and daughters and all the members of his household, as well as his livestock and all his other animals and all the goods he had acquired in Canaan, and moved to a land some distance from his brother Jacob.

We do not know if babies were considered part of a man’s household. Scripture talks about whole households believing, but babies cannot “believe”.

The conjunction “and” is used between wives, sons and daughters and all the members of the household suggesting some were not part of the household. The master would not be giving food to a baby, but to the mother who is a member of the household.

Can you show babies being considered part of the household (the owner of the household’s responsibility and “possession”?)
 
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bling

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Jesus was not left partially exposed to the light in His burial so was totally covered.
 
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bling

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Baptism in the Greek means immersion or totally surrounded, Jesus and the others were totally surrounded by earthen material (stone or dirt.
You are right to say this is not discussing the means by which it is done, but the experience of being surrounded by water is similar to being buried and surrounded by earthen material.
 
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bling

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We need to take all the baptism recordings and put them together to get a complete picture.
Where do you find it stated water was sprinkled on the person at baptism?
 
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The Liturgist

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Which one is right?
Baby baptism is not adult believer immersion baptism, so is baby baptism real baptism?

The baptism of infants and adults is done the same way and provides the same spirituak benefit. It functions noetically, and not intellectually.

Where are there Biblical examples of threefold immersions since the example of baptism being like Christ's going into the tomb was one time?

Firstly, we don’t know that, secondly, it is implied by Matthew 28:19, since the liturgy calls is “I baptize Thee in the name of the Father (spash) and the Son (splash) and the Holy Ghost (splash). Since baptizo means washing or immersion, a threefold action for each person of the Holy Trinity seemed correct to the Early Church Fathers, and we do this for infants as well as adults (if somone has a medical condition that precludes full immersion, we will work around that).

Also I would note the Orthodox Church does not believe in the Regulative Principle with regards to our liturgies, and neither do most churches, including the Anglicans, Lutherans, Methodists, Catholics and so on. The Regulative Principle is a Calvinist invention. I could ask, for people who use it, where there are Biblical examples of rock-style Praise and Worship music and other departures from solemnity. At any rate, the Orthodox Church is very much like the Anglican Church in that our liturgy constitutes our primary source of dogmatic theology, as opposed to a separate and independent confession of faith; indeed the Nicene Creed is a prominent feature in our liturgy, along with other hymns of a highly dogmatic nature, such as Ho Monogenes, which ensures Christological Orthodoxy.

We do not know if babies were considered part of a man’s household. Scripture talks about whole households believing, but babies cannot “believe”.

If the infants are not members of the household, that would be absurd. Furthermore, it is the experience of the Orthodox Church that infants can believe. For example, the Holy Innocents, who were martyred for our Lord, God and Savior Jesus Christ, and are commemorated by the Orthodox Church and all other liturgical churches on December 28th.
 
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