had a question in today's bible study that I just couldn't anwer. One gal is bothered by Heb 2:5-8, particularly with regard to v7, and I still ponder this:
"You made him for a little while lower than the angels;
you have crowned him with glory and honor" (ESV)
or
"You made them for a little while lower than the angels;
you have crowned him with glory and honor" (NRSV)
Sorry, my Greek is too far gone to even begin to poke at it, but the Vulgate, however, uses "eum", indicating the direct object of God's creation is masculine 3rd person "him" (minuisti eum paulo minus ab angelis gloria et honore coronasti eum et constituisti eum super opera manuum tuarum), so I would be inclined to believe that Jerome truly did intend to use a singular object reflecting Jesus. I am seeing references to Ps 8:4-6, where they indicate "Son of Man".
From one angle, if we truly believe that Christ was equal in all ways to the Father as outlined in our Athanasian creed ("And in this Trinity none is before, or after another; none is greater, or less than another"), how can we also accept that Christ had been "made lower"? Yes, we know his dual nature of being both human and divine comes into play, but that can't be the entirety of the story. Or can it? Is this indicative of his emotional human response to his anguish in the garden (pleading with the Father to take this cup away if it is to be) and suffering on the cross (cry of dereliction)? Is this to point that the terminal point of Jesus' earthly life is a human weakness? Is this a result of Jesus not knowing all that God has revealed to him? OR, are we just reding this entirely wrong?
I am also really puzzled why the NRSV has radically changed the direct object "eum". Is this part of their inclusive language that everyone is gripping about, or is it to really reflect humankind, not Jesus?
"You made him for a little while lower than the angels;
you have crowned him with glory and honor" (ESV)
or
"You made them for a little while lower than the angels;
you have crowned him with glory and honor" (NRSV)
Sorry, my Greek is too far gone to even begin to poke at it, but the Vulgate, however, uses "eum", indicating the direct object of God's creation is masculine 3rd person "him" (minuisti eum paulo minus ab angelis gloria et honore coronasti eum et constituisti eum super opera manuum tuarum), so I would be inclined to believe that Jerome truly did intend to use a singular object reflecting Jesus. I am seeing references to Ps 8:4-6, where they indicate "Son of Man".
From one angle, if we truly believe that Christ was equal in all ways to the Father as outlined in our Athanasian creed ("And in this Trinity none is before, or after another; none is greater, or less than another"), how can we also accept that Christ had been "made lower"? Yes, we know his dual nature of being both human and divine comes into play, but that can't be the entirety of the story. Or can it? Is this indicative of his emotional human response to his anguish in the garden (pleading with the Father to take this cup away if it is to be) and suffering on the cross (cry of dereliction)? Is this to point that the terminal point of Jesus' earthly life is a human weakness? Is this a result of Jesus not knowing all that God has revealed to him? OR, are we just reding this entirely wrong?
I am also really puzzled why the NRSV has radically changed the direct object "eum". Is this part of their inclusive language that everyone is gripping about, or is it to really reflect humankind, not Jesus?