Yeah, this is a question that I hadn’t seen before! Thanks for bringing this up!
Here’s the relevant portions of the text in Greek:
Acts 1:30-33
Angel: μὴ φοβοῦ, Μαριάμ, εὗρες γὰρ χάριν παρὰ τῷ θεῷ. καὶ ἰδοὺ συλλήμψῃ ἐν γαστρὶ καὶ τέξῃ υἱὸν καὶ καλέσεις τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ Ἰησοῦν. οὗτος ἔσται μέγας καὶ υἱὸς ὑψίστου κληθήσεται καὶ δώσει αὐτῷ κύριος ὁ θεὸς τὸν θρόνον Δαυὶδ τοῦ πατρὸς αὐτοῦ, καὶ βασιλεύσει ἐπὶ τὸν οἶκον Ἰακὼβ εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας καὶ τῆς βασιλείας αὐτοῦ οὐκ ἔσται τέλος.
Acts 1:34
Mary: πῶς ἔσται τοῦτο, ἐπεὶ ἄνδρα οὐ γινώσκω;
Acts 1:35
Angel: πνεῦμα ἅγιον ἐπελεύσεται ἐπὶ σὲ καὶ δύναμις ὑψίστου ἐπισκιάσει σοι· διὸ καὶ τὸ γεννώμενον ἅγιον κληθήσεται υἱὸς θεοῦ.
It’s quite interesting. When the angel said to her ἰδοὺ συλλήμψῃ ἐν γαστρὶ καὶ τέξῃ υἱὸν καὶ καλέσεις τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ Ἰησοῦν
behold, you will conceive and give birth to a son and call his name Jesus, why didn’t she just think of the future – after her “coming together” with her husband? Is there a reason that she would jump to the conclusion that it had to be while she was still a virgin? Her response, πῶς ἔσται τοῦτο, ἐπεὶ ἄνδρα οὐ γινώσκω;
how will this be, since I do not know a man?, just seems out of place.
I would say that there’s nothing in the Greek that suggests anything other than what is in the English. An angel appears and tells her that she’s going to conceive a son, and she jumps to the conclusion that it will take place while she’s still a virgin. It doesn’t seem sensible to me. Anyone have any ideas? This will require some more thought, it seems.
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