I have a question about, I suppose, teachings of other groups.
Assuming you know that the cultural milieu that Lot lived in is different than today's and assuming that you accept that Lot was righteous, then doesn't Lot's offer of his daughters to the Sodomites actually imply that he knew his daughters' minds and that he therefore was implicitly praising them?
That is the conclusion I have arrived at. Yet, in general, other Christians seem to think of the whole scene as something that should be ignored, or condemned.
Has any other person or group in your knowledge ever arrived at this same conclusion?
Edit:
Looks like some people are missing the point. Lot had daughters. He lived in the same house as they did. I'm assuming that he met them and talked to them. I also am assuming that he and his wife taught them the laws of hospitality that were based on love. My most dangerous assumption is that they expressed agreement when they understood. Yes, these are assumptions, but why do most assume the opposite?
Other assumptions is that Lot knew what was happening. Blood on the ground would be a tip-off. Screams at night as both sexes were violated before being killed so that the story would not spread. Things like that. Don't accept those assumptions? Then you are assuming otherwise, right?
Yet, that seems to be the general trend of assumptions except for mine. However, Peter thought Lot a righteous man and he only had a the same scriptures that we have to go on. So I'll stick with my assumptions.
My question still remains: am I the only one? Any other group?
Assuming you know that the cultural milieu that Lot lived in is different than today's and assuming that you accept that Lot was righteous, then doesn't Lot's offer of his daughters to the Sodomites actually imply that he knew his daughters' minds and that he therefore was implicitly praising them?
That is the conclusion I have arrived at. Yet, in general, other Christians seem to think of the whole scene as something that should be ignored, or condemned.
Has any other person or group in your knowledge ever arrived at this same conclusion?
Edit:
Looks like some people are missing the point. Lot had daughters. He lived in the same house as they did. I'm assuming that he met them and talked to them. I also am assuming that he and his wife taught them the laws of hospitality that were based on love. My most dangerous assumption is that they expressed agreement when they understood. Yes, these are assumptions, but why do most assume the opposite?
Other assumptions is that Lot knew what was happening. Blood on the ground would be a tip-off. Screams at night as both sexes were violated before being killed so that the story would not spread. Things like that. Don't accept those assumptions? Then you are assuming otherwise, right?
Yet, that seems to be the general trend of assumptions except for mine. However, Peter thought Lot a righteous man and he only had a the same scriptures that we have to go on. So I'll stick with my assumptions.
My question still remains: am I the only one? Any other group?
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