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I use the KJV because it is the original script. It doesn't take much to understand the "thees" and "thous." It just means "me" and "you."

Certain verses that exist in the KJV are not in the NIV. The KJV was before the NIV, so this proves that verses were not just added onto the original. This proves that Satan is messing with the NIV and all newer translations because man rewrote it, not God! God used man to write the scrolls that are now embedded in the KJV, but they were inspired and filled with the Holy Ghost!

God wrote the Holy Bible (KJV), then man rewrote it (NIV)! And the NIV is not inspired of God!
 

TheBear

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Is the King James Version the best translation, more 'accurate' than any other? If so, explain.

The reason I bring this to the table, is because some English speaking Christians place the King James translation, above any other in the world. Is 16th century English, God's primary language? Have there been no better translations before or since the 16th century English version?

Just curious....


Thanks,
John
 
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unworthyone

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I view the bible as a guide, not be taken literally in all respects. A translation is just that, but the revealing of truth is by the Holy Spirit. It is by that Holy Spirit which Paul wrote his letters.

Is there a better translation? Most definately. The one the Holy Spirit gives me.

Hola John!
 
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cartman

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Originally posted by AgnusDei
I use the KJV because it is the original script....God wrote the Holy Bible (KJV), then man rewrote it (NIV)! And the NIV is not inspired of God!

Agnus,

The KJV wasn't written until 1611. It was translated and compiled from  manuscripts and older versions then available by a group of scholars (I believe 70, IIRC) authorized by King James of England. That is why it is known as the Authorized Version or King James Version.

You should be able to find lots of information by doing an internet search of "history of the Bible" or something similar. 
 
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JohnR7

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Originally posted by TheBear
Have there been no better translations before or since the 16th century English version?

Just curious.... Thanks, John

Actually, the KJV was revised up to the 1700's, but then people started to object to the revisions, and they started to put a different name on them. It was a work in progress that lasted for over 500 years. They kept the KJV name, because that was the most effort that went into perfecting it, when around 50 top scholars comissioned by King James worked on it.

I think it would be possible to improve upon it. But no one has managed to improve it.

Is 16th century English, God's primary language?

It is right now. We lead the world in technology, research and development. A lot of the text books are written in English. It is pretty much the universal language. Esp. in Asia and the eastern world.

My wife is from the Philippines and they start teaching them English in Kindergarden. They take English every year right up and through collage. By the time they graduate from collage their English is very good. It is the same thing in Hong Kong. I went to a bank in Hong Kong and the girl there could speak English better than I could.

My wife worked in Hong Kong as a domestic helper for nine years. The reason they hired her was that her English was so good. So she could tutor the children and help them with their homework. In the Philippines she made about $100 a month working for the government. In Hong Kong, she made about $500 a month plus they gave her a room to live in and food to eat.

Another reason people learn English is so they can watch our movies. A lot of money goes into making those movies. Have you ever seen a chinese made movie or a movie made in Japan? YAWN I don't watch movies anymore, but I am saying it is another reason why English is the International language.
 
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ZiSunka

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The KJV was revised about every fifty years up through the late 1800's, but always with the same Elizabethan lingo. I have about six revised KJV's from different years and different revisors.

God's Word is the next best thing to KJV, extremely accurate and written in modern english. Check it out at www.godsword.org

I use this almost exclusively now when writing paper and devotionals.
 
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fragmentsofdreams

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Originally posted by TheBear
Thanks for the link, lambslove. :)

BTW, the original writings are God inspired and flawless. Can the same be said of translations of the original writings?

Of course not, since some have deliberately mistranslated the Bible in order to support their beliefs.
 
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Andrew

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"BTW, the original writings are God inspired and flawless. Can the same be said of translations of the original writings?"

NO. There are mistranslations (the accurate meaning or impact is lost), and these occur in KJV, NIV, etc.

One example I can think of right now is Isa 53:4

Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.

You can ask any Messianic Jew or Hebrew scholar and they'll tell you that it should be
"borne our sicknesses and carried our pains (mental/physical)". We checked this with a messianic Jew who was in our church recently. The reason why they changed it to something else is probably politics.

I the NASB (they put it in brackets i think) and YLT are accurate here.

Another is this:

Hebrews 10:14
because by one sacrifice he has made perfect forever those who are being made holy.

If I'm rem correctly, "being" was added. the YLT is more accurate:

Hebrews 10
14ÊÊÊfor by one offering he hath perfected to the end those sanctified;

The meaning does change when you add being ie still in the process of being sanctified. So many beleivers start thinking that they are still not fully saved or something like that...

that's all I can rem for now.

God bless
 
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I can eat 50 eggs

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Originally posted by AgnusDei
I use the KJV because it is the original script. It doesn't take much to understand the "thees" and "thous." It just means "me" and "you."

Certain verses that exist in the KJV are not in the NIV. The KJV was before the NIV, so this proves that verses were not just added onto the original. This proves that Satan is messing with the NIV and all newer translations because man rewrote it, not God! God used man to write the scrolls that are now embedded in the KJV, but they were inspired and filled with the Holy Ghost!

God wrote the Holy Bible (KJV), then man rewrote it (NIV)! And the NIV is not inspired of God!

 

This is a joke, right?
 
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I can eat 50 eggs

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There have been many ancient manuscripts found since the KJV was put out, that give much better insite into the original content of teh Bible. I guess we should throw those out. By the way, if you think the original KJV is the only "true" version, what the heck did Christian use for the first 1600 years? Do you believe in the apocrypha? they were in the original KJV.
 
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fragmentsofdreams

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Originally posted by TheBear
Any specific examples?

The JW's translate "The Word was God" in John 1 as "The Word was a god" in order to support their doctrine that Jesus is a created being.

Also, while not as heinous, I think some translators prefer "You shall not kill" over "You shall not murder" because the former is the way that everyone remembers it. Many people would consider any changes in the meaning of their favorite passages to be indicative of an error on the part of the new translators and would boycott more accurate translations.
 
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