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TwinCrier

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SumTinWong

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I thinkwhat you are failing to realize is that Shakespere's work was authored/written in that language. To change that language is an awful idea, and is not the same as changing the language of the Bible. We do not have to translate from one language to another just update his writing to ours. The Bible was written in Greek and Hebrew, not ye olde english, and therefore the example does not hold up.
 
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aReformedPatriot

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TwinCrier said:
Ironic that you would quote Shakespere. Shouldn't someone update THAT archaic language? Shouldn't we modernize the hymns? Certainly they are not as sacred as the bible.



There is no depth to that argument at all, its just surface level propaganda.
 
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ZiSunka

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TwinCrier said:
Ironic that you would quote Shakespere. Shouldn't someone update THAT archaic language? Shouldn't we modernize the hymns? Certainly they are not as sacred as the bible.


If I were using Shakespere as a guide knowing God and living my life, I would want it rewritten into the most understandable language possible. Since it is only entertainment, I don't mind that it is difficult to understand.

However, I have been to several "updated" versions of his plays and find them every bit as good as the originals, because it isn't just flowery wording that makes Shakespeare great, it is character development, dialogue, scene set up and an insight to the human condition that only Shakespeare had. The modern version of Julius Caeser is wonderful, because when you understand the language, you can feel the drama, the intrigue, the emotions of the characters without them having to be overacted like traditional Shakespeare has to be to get the message across. Cassius's fear of Caesar comes out, Brutus's love for him appears and his final betrayal of his best friend is protrayed with all the angst it should have. The actors are free to act and don't have to try to convey emotions through over-grand gestures or exagerated tones of voice that they used to do because the audience wouldn't be able to understand the words.

Dost thou knowest mine heart? (translation: Do you understand what I am saying?) Elizabethe's verbat t'is'n't eft. (it isn't easy to understand Elizabethan language) T'is more than an esperence atwixt we and they. (no one has spoken like that for a long time) T'is near bavin anon. (it's nearly useless now)

Plus, word meaning have changed so much since then that they don't even make sense in context.

"Avoid" meant to empty or to throw away something, not to stay away from somewhere like it does now. "Awful" meant to be in the act of worship. "Abide" meant to complete a journey, not to stay home like it does now. It is easy to take wrong meanings because of the way the definitions have changed. Without an elizabethan dictionary, I don't know how anyone can be sure they understand what the KJV is really saying.

As for the hymns, check your hymnbooks. Any hymn written before 1900 was probably updated by 1950. Rock of Ages has had three language updates, and it is very unlikely that your hymnal has the original version. "How Great Thou Art" has had two updates that I know of. Open your hymnal and check the words against an old hymnal from before 1875 and you will see that although they are similar, they are not the original words.

I dig-you-good-den. (I wish you a good evening, in Shakespearean English)
 
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aReformedPatriot

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Wow....You have just blown my mind, awesome post!
 
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TwinCrier

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Then why not call it How great you are, since that archaic language is so very difficult for you to understand? Personally, I think it's a copout. There is more money in revising bibles than hymnbooks. When I was in school (don't I sould old) we were required to look up words we didn't know in the dic-tion-ar-y. I guess it's just easier to take some revisors word for what the words really mean.


How I Know The King James Bible is the Word of God
 
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SumTinWong

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Do you know that the King James Version you read is not the AV 1611 version but an update to that version?

From the actual 1611 Version:
John 3:16 "For God so loued ye world, that he gaue his only begotten Sonne: that whosoeuer beleeueth in him, should not perish, but haue euerlasting life."

From the later revision:
John 3:16 "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life."

I guess you had better get out ye olde english dictionary and practice what ye preach eh-eth?

What KJVO fail to understand is that the originals were in Greek and Aramaic and Hebrew, not ye olde English. So every translation was made into the modern day language. In 1611 it was this. In 2005 it is not. The original texts in Greek and Hebrew are the handed down word of God. Every translation including this one is someones opinion of what the texts mean.

Because It Has No Copyright
It has no copyright because it is almost 400 years old and it cannot be copyrighted.

I don't have the time to go over every specualtion and allegation that the farce of an article you provide outlines, needless to say it is bunk. To say that those folks were inspired and the folks of today are not. To say they were honest... yadda yadda.

Horse hockey.
 
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aReformedPatriot

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So which version do you use? If you come from the position that the 1611 is a new plenary verbal inspiration of the text, then any revision thus becomes an editing of the inspired word of God.
 
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ZiSunka

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Sounds like a bad case of sour grapes.

Revising a hymn doesn't make is copyrightable again, it is still in the public domain, so there is no profit to the update.

Using our dictionaries to look up Elizabethan words would give you modern meaning, not the elizabethan meaning. You would have to use an elizabethan dictionary, but gosh! there were NO dictionaries back then! What's a Bible student to do? Trust in a translation that uses words that look the same as modern english but have entirely different meanings, or use a Bible translation that uses modern words that we can all understand without an advanced degree in Elizabethan english?

As for profit, if you devoted 20 or 30 years of your life to translating the Bible, wouldn't you need to earn a profit so you could feed your kids and pay your bills? Bible translators need to earn a living, too, and that's part of what you are paying for when you buy a newer translation. If they are too expensive for you, PM me your address and I will send you some for free.
 
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hindsey

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I've posted earlier in this thread (I think it was this one...) that I don't think all the modern versions are in it for the buck... but, why is it that there are just so many of them? Over 100 of them? The money argument would be an answer to that question. Are there any other answers?

And Uncle Bud, modern versions aren't just updating the spelling of words like the example that you gave. So, to argue that we're not using the 1611 on that argument is just not valid. We're talking about whole new translations in the modern versions (from different texts too, but we'll stay off that one here).

So, what's the reason that there are over 100 different modern versions?
 
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ZiSunka

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The Bible is such a great book that everyone wants to know it thoroughly from the original and since they are translating it themselves, they figure why not publish and share it with the world. The translators get very little money from it. There might be 20 translators working together and they all share about 50 cents from each volume sold, so you can see that millions and millions would have to be printed for anyone to make any real money from them.
 
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Gold Dragon

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That is a great question. One thing to keep in mind is that there were multiple different english versions before the KJV as well. What were the motivations of each of those translations?

The primary motivation for those older translations was accuracy and it is still one of the motivations for modern translations. As more manuscripts become available, we can approach the originals with ever increasing accuracy.

Another motivation is the non-static nature of language. There is a saying that once you buy a computer, it is already obsolete due to the advances in the field. Like computers, once a book is published, its language is already obselete because languages are constantly changing. Not quite as dramatically as the technology in computers, but nevertheless it is still changing.

Then there is the cultural/geographical aspect of language. Not all words mean the same thing to different people. Just look at england and how many words are different from the way we use words in North America. There are Canadian-US differences. Even within Canada, the west, central and eastern parts have different usages of the same words.

There are other audience issues. Translators recognize that their readers come from all different backgrounds in culture and geography, but also different levels of reading comprehension and theological familiarity.

There are also interpretation issues. As we can see in CF, there are often many different interpretation to a single piece of scripture. Even the most literal translation needs some level of interpretation because of the differences in grammar and sentence structure between languages.

Finally there are theological issues. Some translators feel that one translation favours theological positions they disagree with where a different (but also valid) translation of those verses may be more neutral or supportive of their theological position.

All these factors are considered to make a specific translations to be effective at communicating the sacred scriptures to a specific audience (some translations more specific than others) to the best of their abilities.
 
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aReformedPatriot

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Awesome Post!


This is where I draw the line and dislike the NIV. What is the job of a translator? Is he supposed to just translate the text and give you what it says, or are they supposed to translate into the text a "favoured theolgoical position"? When I look for a translation, I just want what the text says, not anyones favored position.

Now, not every translation is free from this, mainly because of idioms. If you translate a greek/herbrew idiom into english it may make no sense at all, so the translators are bound to find its equivilent in english. I can deal with that I suppose
 
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Gold Dragon

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hindsey said:
Gold Dragon, which of those, or is it all of those, do you think are good reasons to make a new translation?

You answered the question well. Now, I am asking if you agree with their reasons?

Yes, I believe all of them are good reasons.
 
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Gold Dragon

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All of the translators (even the KJV) believe that they are translating the text "just as its says". However what it says always involves some aspect of interpretation that is biased to whoever is translating it. This is simply an aspect of human languages that is unavoidable.

The Lord's Envoy said:
Now, not every translation is free from this, mainly because of idioms. If you translate a greek/herbrew idiom into english it may make no sense at all, so the translators are bound to find its equivilent in english. I can deal with that I suppose

I would say that no texts or translations are free of human bias including the KJV and even the originals autographs. It is an impossibility. Some translations are better than others at minimizing this bias.
 
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ZiSunka

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The Gideons use NKJV, NIV, Berkely, and several others, but they haven't distributed the KJV for several years because their purpose is to encourage Bible reading and too many people said they couldn't read the KJV.

If you have a Gideon's KJV, it's very likely that it was printed before 1990.
 
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