Hey, I don't post here much but I would really appreciate your help on something. I've tried reasoning the Kalam argument out with atheists a few times and it has always gone pretty well (as well as something like that could go). They usually agree with me that the argument is valid. The only way they can really go about defeating the argument, it seems, is by attacking the premise of the argument [Anything which begins to exist has a cause for coming into existence].
I have almost always been told that this can't be true because
a.) The universe and has always existed.
b.) the premise is irrelevant because there are an infinite amount of motions that gave existence to the universe
c.) Because science has shown us that the universe formed itself out of "nothing".
I've done a little research and tried to offer some answers to these objections. I was hoping people on here could critique my reasoning and provide some constructive criticism. I'll keep it short so as to save time and energy.
{reply to a}: A infinite task cannot be completed. In an infinite sequence no end or beginning can be reached and consequently no point in the sequence can be reaced either. Thus the universe could not have been around for an infinite amount of time and therefore has to be finite.
{reply to b}: the same concept problem of infinity can be applied here as well because it's difficult to see how an infinite series of causes and effects is even possible.
{reply to c}: This does not effectively evade the problems of an infinite sequence and other inconsistencies. The word "nothing" is being used ambiguously here. If it is used properly used (meaning to have no properties at all) it is absurd to say that any thing can come from no thing. The only way out is to change the meaning of meaning of "nothing" into an entity having at least some existent property necessary to form a universe or whatever. But this commits an equivocation and is only a more creative way of saying that the universe was formed by an inanimate object of some kind, implying several things that are shown by replies a and b to be impossible.
One more pesky half-objection suggests that there could have been two or more sentient causes for the universe (i.e. more than one God). While an atheist would have to disagree with this, anyways, I hear it quite a bit. As a christian, I would like to be able to show why this can't be so but can't figure out how. It seems like there should be some simple theological reason why it can't be the case.
For those that aren't familiar with the Kalam Argument, here it is:
1. Whatever begins to exist has a cause for coming into being.
2. The universe began to exist.
3. The universe has a cause for coming into being.
Thanks for your help in advance. I would like to post here more often as my schedule and limited knowledge lets me.
I have almost always been told that this can't be true because
a.) The universe and has always existed.
b.) the premise is irrelevant because there are an infinite amount of motions that gave existence to the universe
c.) Because science has shown us that the universe formed itself out of "nothing".
I've done a little research and tried to offer some answers to these objections. I was hoping people on here could critique my reasoning and provide some constructive criticism. I'll keep it short so as to save time and energy.
{reply to a}: A infinite task cannot be completed. In an infinite sequence no end or beginning can be reached and consequently no point in the sequence can be reaced either. Thus the universe could not have been around for an infinite amount of time and therefore has to be finite.
{reply to b}: the same concept problem of infinity can be applied here as well because it's difficult to see how an infinite series of causes and effects is even possible.
{reply to c}: This does not effectively evade the problems of an infinite sequence and other inconsistencies. The word "nothing" is being used ambiguously here. If it is used properly used (meaning to have no properties at all) it is absurd to say that any thing can come from no thing. The only way out is to change the meaning of meaning of "nothing" into an entity having at least some existent property necessary to form a universe or whatever. But this commits an equivocation and is only a more creative way of saying that the universe was formed by an inanimate object of some kind, implying several things that are shown by replies a and b to be impossible.
One more pesky half-objection suggests that there could have been two or more sentient causes for the universe (i.e. more than one God). While an atheist would have to disagree with this, anyways, I hear it quite a bit. As a christian, I would like to be able to show why this can't be so but can't figure out how. It seems like there should be some simple theological reason why it can't be the case.
For those that aren't familiar with the Kalam Argument, here it is:
1. Whatever begins to exist has a cause for coming into being.
2. The universe began to exist.
3. The universe has a cause for coming into being.
Thanks for your help in advance. I would like to post here more often as my schedule and limited knowledge lets me.