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Joshua?

Jonaitis

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Question: Would it be wrong to call our Lord and Savior "Joshua"? If so, why?

The names Joshua and Jesus derive from the Hebrew name Yehoshua (יְהוֹשׁוּעַ), which means "Yahweh is salvation" or "The Lord is salvation."

Let's look at some quotes with this change:

  1. John 20:31
    "But these are written so that you may believe that Joshua is the Anointed One, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name."
  2. Acts 2:36
    "Let all the house of Israel therefore know for certain that God has made him both Lord and the Anointed One, this Joshua whom you crucified."
  3. Romans 5:8
    "But God shows his love for us in that while we were still sinners, Joshua, the Anointed One, died for us."
  4. 1 Corinthians 15:3–4
    "For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received: that Joshua, the Anointed One, died for our sins in accordance with the Scriptures, that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day in accordance with the Scriptures."
  5. Galatians 2:20
    "I have been crucified with the Anointed One. It is no longer I who live, but Joshua, the Anointed One, who lives in me. And the life I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me."
  6. Philippians 4:13
    "I can do all things through Joshua, the Anointed One, who strengthens me."
  7. Colossians 1:15–16
    "He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation. For by him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things were created through Joshua, the Anointed One, and for him."
  8. 1 Timothy 2:5
    "For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Joshua, the Anointed One."
  9. Revelation 22:20
    "Surely I am coming soon." Amen. Come, Lord Joshua, the Anointed One!
 

timothyu

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Of course not but there is a catch. The name Jesus didn't even exist until the English translations of the 18th century when the letter j came into being replacing the Y sound. This means Joshua also would be a late comer, so Yeshua or its derivatives would still be the best bet if one wanted to keep it proper. Would calling someone of a foreign name Bob be representative of their name?
 
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Jonaitis

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Of course not but there is a catch. The name Jesus didn't even exist until the English translations of the 18th century when the letter j came into being replacing the Y sound. This means Joshua also would be a late comer, so Yeshua or its derivatives would still be the best bet if one wanted to keep it proper. Would calling someone of a foreign name Bob be representative of their name?
If it is in the modern vernacular, right?
 
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The Liturgist

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Of course not but there is a catch. The name Jesus didn't even exist until the English translations of the 18th century when the letter j came into being replacing the Y sound. This means Joshua also would be a late comer, so Yeshua or its derivatives would still be the best bet if one wanted to keep it proper. Would calling someone of a foreign name Bob be representative of their name?

That’s fairly spectacularly inaccurate. The word originated in Latin as the translation of the Greek Iesous, which historically lacked a J character, as Iesus, and from there spread to other European languages including the Romance languages and Germanic languages, including English.

The first use of the specific spelling with a J instead of an I in the English language dates from 1532, in the 16th century, not the 18th century, and the spelling became definitive in 1629 when J became recognized as a discrete letter for producing the soft g sound, but the word already existed - the fact that one of the typographic glyphs used to pronounce it phonetically has changed is irrelevant, since these glyphs have changed repeatedly over time. For example, the sound th used to be made using a lost letter of the English alphabet called a Thorn, which Icelandic still has, and which I wish we could recover. W, U and J are all fairly recent glyphs. Thus historically, to make the sound Jesus, one would have written IESVS .

The first use of the Latin form of the name of our Lord, which had the sound of “Jesus” was in the 1st century, among the Latin=speaking people of the Western Empire such as the Roman soldiers and Pontius Pilate, and in the inscription above His cross “INRI” the I stands for Jesus, and this was the pronunciation used by Latin=speaking Christians from the beginning (the Bible and liturgy were translated from Latin to Greek in the 2nd century in order to be accessible to Romans not lucky enough to be born into wealthy families who were sent to the Grammaticus and Rhaetor to learn Greek, and in the fourth century the Vulgate made it accessible once more, since the vernacular form of the language had deteriorated from the classical Latin of the second century Bible, the Vetus Latina, but some phrases from the Vetus Latina survive even today, such as “Gloria in Exclesis Deo.”

Now regarding referring to our Lord as Joshua, while it is true that this is the Hebrew version of His name, at the time He was born, Hebrew was not in use as the vernacular language of the Jews, but had been superseded except in religious liturgical contexts by Aramaic, and even in the religious sphere Aramaic had made substantial intrusions, in that Aramaic words became ubiquitous in the old Testament (there is at least one in Genesis), and some entire books of great importance such as Daniel were written in Old Testament Aramaic from the start. Additionally, the Bible and Hebrew were written using a 22 letter subset of the Imperial Aramaic “square letter” alphabet, which replaced the Paleo-Hebrew alphabet among the Jews (but not the Samaritans, who continued to use the old style of writing and who use a script derived from it to this day). Thus our Lord was referred to in Galilean Neo-Aramaic as something like “Yeshua”, which in later Syriac dialects was simplified, becoming Isha in the Eastern accent of Classical Syriac and in the Neo-Assyrian Eastern Neo-Aramaic dialect which is spoken by just under a million Christians of the Assyrian Church of the East and the Ancient Church of the East, remaining the largest surviving Aramaic speaking population. There are other Aramaic speaking popualtions in the Syriac Orthodox Church (Turoyo survives among some Syriac Orthodox from Turkey, and another dialect among those living in Jerusalem and Bethlehem) and the Antiochian Orthodox Church (the village of Maaloula in Syria, which was occupied for nine months by ISIS, speaks Aramaic and has a convent of Aramaic-speaking nuns.

There are also some non-Christian speakers, such as the Mandaeans (who believe themselves to be followers of John the Baptist, but are in fact the last surviving Gnostic sect) whose Classical Mandaic language is somewhere in between Classical Syriac Aramaic and the Neo-Aramaic used by the Talmudic geonim of Judaism in Seleucia-Cstesiphon.
 
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Question: Would it be wrong to call our Lord and Savior "Joshua"?

In summary, for the reasons stated in my previous post, no, but on the other hand, your question “Why?” applies since our Lord was not historically referred to using this name. Messianic Jews tend to call Him Yeshua, which is also what the Jews of the time would have called Christ our True God.

That said, if a Hebrew-langauge Christian church were organized in Israel, that used the vernacular dialect of Hebrew revived in that country, which I would support (I would also very much like to see the Eastern Orthodox Patriarchate of Jerusalem offer services in Hebrew in addition to Greek and Arabic, but even as things are they are getting Jewish converts), Joshua might be ideal. But there is also a risk of confusion with the historical person of Joshua the son of Nun, whose life did typographically prophesize that of our Lord, in that Christ our True God leads us into the Promised Land as Joshua lead the Israelites into the Promised Land, and out of the desert, since Moses, who is analogous to John the Baptist in some respects, had to stop at the verge, and also Joshua’s defeat of Jericho and collapse of its walls can be likened to Christ’s defeat of Hell and the Harrowing of Hell and the liberation of humanity from inevitable and unavoidable damnation, in His redemptive passion on the Cross and His Resurrection.

Although in other respects Moses also typographically prefigures our Lord, for example, when Moses received the Law from Christ, whose face he was not permitted to see, but whom He encountered bodily (which indicates that this was one of several Old Testament Christophanies, whereas some other Theophanies Moses encountered be attributed to the Holy Spirit, such as the Burning Bush), and it is possible he heard the voice of the Father, although we cannot be sure; it is possible the Father has only been heard twice, at the Baptism of our Lord and the Transfiguration, and has not been seen at any time except as revealed by His Only Begotten Son and Word, our Incarnate Lord, God and Savior Jesus Christ), the face of Moses was luminous, and on Mount Tabor, a similar light surrounded Him, and Moses and Elijah were seen with our Lord.
 
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Jonaitis

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In summary, for the reasons stated in my previous post, no, but on the other hand, your question “Why?” applies since our Lord was not historically referred to using this name. Messianic Jews tend to call Him Yeshua, which is also what the Jews of the time would have called Christ our True God.
Does the historical convention negates us from using our own.
That said, if a Hebrew-langauge Christian church were organized in Israel, that used the vernacular dialect of Hebrew revived in that country, which I would support (I would also very much like to see the Eastern Orthodox Patriarchate of Jerusalem offer services in Hebrew in addition to Greek and Arabic, but even as things are they are getting Jewish converts), Joshua might be ideal. But there is also a risk of confusion with the historical person of Joshua the son of Nun, whose life did typographically prophesize that of our Lord, in that Christ our True God leads us into the Promised Land as Joshua lead the Israelites into the Promised Land, and out of the desert, since Moses, who is analogous to John the Baptist in some respects, had to stop at the verge, and also Joshua’s defeat of Jericho and collapse of its walls can be likened to Christ’s defeat of Hell and the Harrowing of Hell and the liberation of humanity from inevitable and unavoidable damnation, in His redemptive passion on the Cross and His Resurrection.
However, as said before, the Jews who spoke in this language would have called him by the same name that the prophet was called, therefore, the confusion would lie in the historical use. It did not bother Paul to call Him the same name as the prophet.
 
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