What do I mean by this? Ever since the KJV, I believe that John 3:16 has been mistranslated and isn't correct... none of the current Bible have it right either because of everyone comes from an Arminian viewpoint.... the verse, and I kid you not, is Calvinistic to the core, if it is translated correctly...
Joh 3:16 οὕτω γὰρ ἡγάπησεν ὁ Θεὸς τὸν κόσμον, ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν αὐτοῦ τὸν μονογενῆ ἔδωκεν, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται, ἀλλ᾿ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον.
For in this way God loved the world, that he gave his only son, in order that all the believing ones in him not destroyed, but shall have life of the ages.
The whole contention really centers on the "whosoever believeth" as in everyone had a "free-choice" in the matter of choosing or rejecting Christ... but if you view the verse by comparing scripture with scripture, and knowing that Christ's redemption actually saved people, not merely made salvation possible then it makes sense.... the verse really is just saying all those believing in Christ are saved... it's not to be understood in the sense that "whosoever" can come, but that all those already believing are saved (because obviously they were chosen...)
Can I get a witness from another Calvinist that knows Greek better than I? I've had four semesters of Greek, but I'm rusty.