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Is time just a line or something more?

Paradoxum

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^ NICE!

A little "ahead of your years" aren't ya!

Me?

If so, how do you mean?


I'm not totally sure of the distinction your are trying to make, and why it is important.


I can't really comment much on Kant without properly reading what he has to say.

But the talk of emotional highs and lows is just a manner of speaking. Up/high is associated with heaven, and down/low is associated with hell. Emotions that feel nice are therefore said to be good or high, and vice versa. It seems to me that you are basing your philosophy on manners of speech that have naturally evolved through culture. That doesn't seem like safe ground to stand on.

I don't know what it means for emotions to go up or down in time, and I wonder if you know what it means either. As I said before, very abstract theories can very easily go wrong.


I don't see why you think the laws of logic are comparable to music. 1+1=2 is quite different from, "that sounds nice". I think research has been done into music and why some sound good to use and why some sound bad.

Eg: Some sounds sound bad because they indicate something bad (eg: a baby crying, a scream). Perhaps it also has to do with how humans talk. Some voice frequencies express fear or malice, and others kindness and love.

I don't know alot about music and the brain though.


Saying that you ought not to do X, in this usage of it, already assumes that you have free will, so you can't use it to prove free will. It is circular. You can't just say you ought to do X therefore it must be possible to do X. If in fact there were no free will someone could still say you ought to do X, but that wouldn't make it magically true.

Why can't an event (a) be undetermined by prior causes and effects and yet (b) done by me? Would that be a random event?

If it is done by you why did you do X rather than Y? If you can't based your reason on prior states, then it would seem you can have no reason why you chose to do X rather than Y. If there is no reason for it, what would you call it other than random?


Perhaps you are right that the psychological can also be metaphysical, but in this case, it just involves making stuff up for no reason.

Off the top of my head, and as I claimed in a different thread, almost every major ethical philosopher has defended self-discipline as a good.

Well I have no problem with ethics.


It's late, so I'm not really sure what to say to this.


Well I would trust philosophical theories which don't unnecessarily fly off into other worlds and dimensions more. We should look for answers in things we understand first before thinking we need to go beyond this 3D world. The only things that may need to go beyond the physical universe to be explained are quantum theory, cosmology, and consciousness. For consciousness, I mean normal current science might not be able to explain it.
 
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Ripheus27

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I'm not totally sure of the distinction your are trying to make, and why it is important.

You said that God being inside of time, even a higher dimension of this, would make God into a physical object. But if we define physicality in terms of space-time causation, and limit this causation only to the order of events in time's first dimension, then for God to exist "outside" the first dimension of time, and yet still within some other form of time, would not render God physical. Now you also said something about physical interrelations between concepts like spacetime and physicality, so I brought up geometrical conceptions of space (and, by implication, time) to show how we can think of space without thinking of physical reality (unless, as some, e.g. Max Tegmark, have argued, to every conceivable abstract mathematical space there a priori corresponds some concrete physical object).


The high-low/up-down metaphor is based on heaven and hell? Is that really true? Look at musical notation. It's a lot like a graph. But a graph of what? Of progress through time, for one.

I don't know what it means for emotions to go up or down in time, and I wonder if you know what it means either. As I said before, very abstract theories can very easily go wrong.

It's not that our emotions are these separate things inside us that move "up" and "down" inside of us. Our emotions just are patterns of our (psychological) motion. Phenomenologically speaking, emotions "present" or "seem" more like kinesthesia, for example, than sight (they seem that way to me, that is); and kinesthesia is part of (or just all of, I don't recall right now) our perception of our own position in space.

I don't see why you think the laws of logic are comparable to music. 1+1=2 is quite different from, "that sounds nice". I think research has been done into music and why some sound good to use and why some sound bad.

Are we discussing the same issue of musical expression? I wasn't talking about why we like or dislike certain kinds of music, but I'm not sure that's what you're talking about right now, either. In case you are, my question, though, has to do with, "Why does pure instrumental music evoke happiness or sadness or intensity or whatever?" Since these pieces of music have no words, it's not that their wording can evoke the relevant feelings. But from Douglas Hofstadter's work I got the impression that semantics depends partly or even altogether on similarities between referent and reference, so that even a word like "abstract" means abstract things in a way akin to how "woof" refers to a stereotyped dog's woofing.

You've indicated:

Eg: Some sounds sound bad because they indicate something bad (eg: a baby crying, a scream). Perhaps it also has to do with how humans talk. Some voice frequencies express fear or malice, and others kindness and love.

But I would have a hard time understanding in these terms the euphoria I feel listening to some music. It's not that no sound corresponds somehow to the feeling of euphoria, it's that the level of the feeling goes far beyond the level of correspondence.

Then again,

I don't know alot about music and the brain though.

And I'm not going to make any claims to superior knowledge on these counts, here, either.


This goes back partly to the "it depends on your definition of morality" remark I made. However, the definition in question is pretty thin--"a system for guiding actions based on the idea of overriding priority." That is, on this view, a moral claim is a claim meant to guide one's actions, even if those actions thereby conflict with something else in the order of one's priorities. It's a fairly small step from this notion of morality to the belief that you need the ability to act on moral claims in order for moral claims to make sense to us.


Well, maybe there's another way to look at it. You do make your decision based on a prior state, but that state is itself indeterminate.

But no, "I did it for no reason," while random in a way, is not random in an unfree way, since you said the unfree form of randomness involved us standing back and passively watching ourselves act. There are two different types of being random at play in this context (to bring the topic up again, maybe this difference in types is relevant to the difference between chance and randomness?).

Perhaps you are right that the psychological can also be metaphysical, but in this case, it just involves making stuff up for no reason.

I don't think Arendt made up her theory for no reason, and I surely didn't make up my own for no reason.

We should look for answers in things we understand first before thinking we need to go beyond this 3D world.

I'm not sure what concrete value this sentence has. What are "things we understand"?

Secondly, I'm not asserting, "Time is +1D," only as an explanation for other things; I'm claiming it as a way of understanding something we directly perceive (our emotions/imagination/related). In that sense, the assertion doesn't take us beyond the world we already know; it just redescribes part of this world.

The only things that may need to go beyond the physical universe to be explained are quantum theory, cosmology, and consciousness. For consciousness, I mean normal current science might not be able to explain it.

Maybe; but there are no other major questions you have about reality?
 
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Ripheus27

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One of the things I'm saying is that the simplest explanation for music and emotion being in this special harmony is if they are geometrically isomorphic. Since we're not talking about spatial geometry, and since the only other concrete geometrical manifold we know of in experience is the order of time, then since the isomorphism here requires two-dimensional space, by the very same principle it requires two-dimensional time.
 
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Ripheus27

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As far as Arendt is concerned (although I would rather cite her own words directly):

 
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