I have come across this. Is it accurate?
When the word homosexual appears in the Bible it does not meant it how it is used today.
The story about Sodom is talking about a gang rape. The city was about to be destroyed but God wanted to spare Lot. He sent angles to warn him. When the angles got there they see the citizens accosted Lot. They told him to bring out the righteous guys that Lot hand found so they could gang rape them(Genesis 19:4-30). The people there had been raping travelers. They had been doing all sorts of detestable things. Thats why the city was destroyed.
Romans 1:24-25- "Therefore God gave them over in the sinful desires of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading of their bodies with one another. They exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and ***worshiped and served created things*** rather than the Creatorwho is forever praised. Amen."
This is referring to pagan worship practices where people would have sex with random strangers in huge orgies. This was done to worship the Roman god Bacchus. This is not talking about orientation.
I Corinthians 6:9(To understand this verse you have to look at it in Greek) - ἢ οὐκ οἴδατε ὅτι ἄδικοι θεοῦ βασιλείαν οὐ κληρονομήσουσιν; μὴ πλανᾶσθε: οὔτε πόρνοι οὔτε εἰδωλολάτραι οὔτε μοιχοὶ οὔτε μαλακοὶ οὔτε ἀρσενοκοῖται οὔτε κλέπται οὔτε πλεονέκται, οὐ μέθυσοι, οὐ λοίδοροι, οὐχ ἅρπαγες βασιλείαν θεοῦ κληρονομήσουσιν.
In Greek homosexual used for orientation is: ομοφυλοφιλικός, or omophulophilikos. Neither is found in the verse. The same thing goes for 1 Timothy 1:10(πόρνοις, ἀρσενοκοίταις, ἀνδραποδισταῖς, ψεύσταις, ἐπιόρκοις, καὶ εἴ τι ἕτερον τῇ ὑγιαινούσῃ διδασκαλίᾳ ἀντίκειται