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Is the KJV more than a translation

he-man

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Your analysis is as faulty as the TR, KJV, Tyndales, and Wycliffe. 1Tim 3:1 If anyone worthy of trust desires to be a guardian he wishes to work.

 
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he-man

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not quite the fault lies in the faulty translations. 1 Tim 3:1 If anyone worthy of trust wishes to be a guardian, he desires to work.
 
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Tutorman

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The information age has allowed more access and more knowledge then ever before liken to the printing press of the textus receptus age and people are more academic with what they read but less interested in overtly religious tonnes.

This made me think of this verse But thou, O Daniel, shut up the words, and seal the book, even to the time of the end: many shall run to and fro, and knowledge shall be increased. Dan 12:4

Don't know why but it did
 
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DamianWarS

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not quite the fault lies in the faulty translations. 1 Tim 3:1 If anyone worthy of trust wishes to be a guardian, he desires to work.

King James I, didn't like the Geneva bible because of the puritan marginal notes that may cause people to question the clergy thus could cause question to the hierarchy of the church which if followed to the top could question the purpose and authority of the King (for Anglicans). It's a little silly too look back at it now but the protestant movement detested the authority of the Pope and in a way the King of England could be liken to the Pope so he was afraid the movement could protest himself as King.

The Geneva Bible was a protestant radical bible and it was all about pulling back the curtain by giving everyone the tools to study the bible themselves, King James I just didn't want it pulled back too far and sanctioned a new translation that was less radical and less transparent. The 1599 Geneva Bible and the 1611 KJV are remarkedly similar and use the same base texts but the KJV didn't have the radical ideas inside the margin and the King of England wanted it kept this way.

I wouldn't say the KJV was corrupted by this political agenda as I don't think the King had any influence into the translation process itself but he just removed the marginal notes and left the text "as is" basically giving continued reason to support the clergy in interpretation which gave him cause to be King and head of the Church of England. The KJV is an good translation and so is the Geneva Bible but there are newer discoveries unknown to the 16/17th century that puts the base text closer than every before to the originals, this allows better translations and better resources today to aid our study of the Bible.
 
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It uses "bishop" and Anglicans have bishops. That's one prominent example.

Bishop is just a name. If others copied what God's Word says that does not mean that it is false. How is it wrong to be called a "bishop"?

The root meaning is, "watcher, (spiritual) overseer,"
 
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SummaScriptura

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Yes, more than a translation.

Consider the lasting effect and influence the King James Bible has exerted upon the English language since it was issued.Through the popularity of this 17th-century English work, innumerable forms of expression became commonplace and moved into general usage by English speakers and writers. If one were to say, everyone has ‘a cross to bear’, or that we should ‘go the extra mile’, or we should not ‘throw pearls before swine’, the meaning is immediately understood even when one does not realize those phrases came from the King James Bible of 1611.

I haven't been there yet, but I'll bet the Museum of the Bible will have a special place for the KJV.

We might also say The Greek Septuagint and the Latin Vulgate are also more than translations of the Bible.
 
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he-man

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It seems like the translation hs been lost along with the facts: Tyndale translated the word you think is "devil" as Fiend. The Tyndale Bible was the Primary source for the KJV and Tyndale used the faulty Vulgate and TR by Erasumas as his sources.
 
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he-man

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The KJV is corrupted because it uses the faulty TR as a basis. Tyndayle also followed The TR but he translated the word devil as "FIEND"
 
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He Man:

Please stop screen capturing pages and speak for yourself once and while. It would be appreciated. Most folks (including myself) are not going to read through screen captured pages.
 
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Tallguy88

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The NIV is based on the oldest text. Why does the KJV internally duplicate things?

Why do you trust that one or two manuscripts, despite being the oldest found, are necessarily the most correct? When the majority of surviving manuscripts agree with the KJV/TR, then why do we assume that all those manuscripts must be wrong? Couldn't be possible that the manuscripts found in the monastery and in the Vatican were themselves wrong? Two bad apples out of a good bunch, so to speak.

And I note that one lie ("the NIV deleted stuff") having been proven false, we are now discussing a different allegation.
Did the Ethiopian eunuch need to believe and confess in Jesus before being baptized? Not according to the NIV.
 
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Tallguy88

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I don't expect it to go anywhere anytime soon. My church attracts a young crowd and we use the KJV for worship.
 
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Tallguy88

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Why would they be using or debating the KJV if they don't speak English? Nearly every language has the Bible.
 
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he-man

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He Man: Please stop screen capturing pages and speak for yourself once and while. It would be appreciated. Most folks (including myself) are not going to read through screen captured pages.
The majority of Greek manuscripts differs from the Textus Receptus {Hodges ans Farstad used an 1825 Oxford reprint of Stephanus' 1550 text for comparission purposes) in 1,838 places and in many of these places, the text of Wescottand Hort agrees with the majority of manuscripts against the Textus Receptus. The majority in excluding Lk 17:36; Acts 8:37; and 1 Jn 5:7 from the NT as well asconcuring in numerous other readings (such as "tree of life" in Rev 22:19). Except in rare cases writers well versed in textal criticism have abandoned the Textus Receptus as a standard text.[Bible-researcher.com] Tyndale used the faulty TR, Vulgate, and Erasumus' text and although he correctly translated the word devil as a "FIEND".
 
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he-man

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5,000 manuscripts support the Sinaicutus and Vaticanus. http//:www.csntm.org
 
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DamianWarS

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Why would they be using or debating the KJV if they don't speak English? Nearly every language has the Bible.

the debate is when someone tells them that their translation in their language can't be called the pure Word of God
 
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Tallguy88

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the debate is when someone tells them that their translation in their language can't be called the pure Word of God
I've never heard anyone make that claim.
 
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DamianWarS

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I don't expect it to go anywhere anytime soon. My church attracts a young crowd and we use the KJV for worship.

well either way the facts are the KJV is no longer the best selling bible. This inevitably means the KJV will begin to lose its market share among Christians to other versions.
 
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SummaScriptura

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well either way the facts are the KJV is no longer the best selling bible. This inevitably means the KJV will begin to lose its market share among Christians to other versions.
Which one(s) do you like, DamianWarS? I started out KJV for a 1/2 year, moved to the Good News and then Living Bible for another 1/2. I finally settled on the RSV about 1973, but unfortunately my RSV wore out and became hard to find as other versions dominated the scene. In 1979 I moved to the NIV for a few months but found too many paraphrases. I opted for the NASB for the next 28 years. I always regretted that the NASB was not good for memorization. I memorized a lot but forgot almost as much. Then in 2007 I was in a friends church and they were using the ESV of which I had been unaware. That day I read the preface and was instantly hooked. I intend to stay here until the end... for now.
 
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