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I was joking. I knew exactly what you were trying to say. I just decided to use humor to point out the logical flaw.N
this is one dorky question ! do you have no common sense? well it appears you do not.
O! oh NO! pooping is good for you ,
So, anything that gives pleasure must be avoided by a Christian, lest it lead him into sin...
is that how you read these verses?
Let not sin therefore reign in your mortal body, that ye should obey it in the lusts thereof. Neither yield ye your members as instruments of unrighteousness unto sin, but yield yourselves unto God as those that are alive from the dead, and your members as instruments of righteousness unto God. For sin shall not have dominion over you, for ye are not under the law, but under grace.
What then? Shall we sin because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid!
Know ye not that to whomever ye yield yourselves as servants to obey, his servants ye become whom ye obey, whether of sin which leads unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness?
So what do you make of that? A pterodactyl? Physical urges--any physical urges, including the urge to touch--become sinful for a Christian when he allows them to control his decisions.
Obviously, it is against your convictions, and since it is, this verse does apply, to YOU. However, there is absolutely nothing in those verses related to masturbation. So, those verses could ONLY apply to masturbation with those who don't possess the faith to do such an act. Please be honest enough to admit that there is no clear condemnation of masturbation. All there is are verses which would apply only to those whose convictions disallow it, as mine do. But, to hold one's own convictions with the authority of Scripture and teach others that your convictions are Scriptural truth, is an abject lie. I will hold no one to my convictions, only to the explicit truth of Scripture. When we fail to differentiate between Scripture and conviction, we make ourselves into an authority in the place of God. That is idolatry.
But there is one answer in the eyes of God. It is our job to find out what God's answer is.Some Christians will tell you that it's only a sin if you're committing "adultery in the heart" by lusting after another person. Others will tell you that sexual pleasure is a sin when it's not open to creating life. Still others will tell you that there's nothing wrong with it. There's no one answer.
And if, for those years you are still single before you get married, those urges are so distracting and intense you find a way to shut them down so you do not have to M to deal with them; and then when you DO get married you find you cannot turn them back on; how much does THAT take away from your marriage partner?
Clearly you do not live in the Democratic People's Republic of Maryland or Montgomery County. That is WAAAAAY against the law here.current law doesn't condemn pooping in your neighbors yard either
I do not know. But it happened with my wife and after 37 years of marriage, she still struggles with keeping it on. She also has noted that several other things got turned off at the same time that she was not even aware of.So how often does that happen?
It's against the law in Alabama, I'm pretty sure...Clearly you do not live in the Democratic People's Republic of Maryland or Montgomery County. That is WAAAAAY against the law here.
Some Christians will tell you that it's only a sin if you're committing "adultery in the heart" by lusting after another person. Others will tell you that sexual pleasure is a sin when it's not open to creating life. Still others will tell you that there's nothing wrong with it. There's no one answer.
But there is one answer in the eyes of God. It is our job to find out what God's answer is.
If you just leave it at that and say that everyone has a different answer so therefore we can choose which one to believe is lazy way out and I fear for your soul.
Many would answer that they have done so, and found it not to be sin. I have no answer for such a one.
Have you?
I don't think He meant for us to go peering into other people's bedroom windows to see whether they are masturbating or not.
I have always thought of sin as something that causes harm.
I can't see the sin in masturbation.
And I'm not about to go around asking people whether they touch or not, in order that I may "correct" them.
So, let me get this straight. If you find out that your brother or sister in Christ is masturbating, and he or she tells you to mind your own business, you will announce it in front of the entire church?
And what do you expect would happen next?
Are you really comparing masturbation to having sex with your stepmom?
Frankly, I think you are creating a Tempest in a Teapot....or making Much Ado About Nothing....
What do you do when your son gets to "that age", and suddenly starts spending hours "combing his hair"??
To a degree, since no such verse exists anywhere in scripture.
But OTOH, it is not sarcastic since I am trying to get the poster to search the scriptures for them selves to try and find it. Then perhaps they will realize their position has no basis in scripture.
If it represents sin, then why did childbirth render one unclean? And for varying amounts of time depending on if the child was male or female?
Our Lord was in the same room with, and even touched, dead bodies which was the most intense uncleanness listed in the OT. As a Jewish man "born under the Law;" (Gal 4.4) he would have been rendered unclean as well and had to undergo the sprinkling with the ashes of a red heifer. What did that represent to Him?
Why did birth render the woman unclean is a good question. Perhaps you can see an answer here: Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me.
Actually it is (if you use the right translation)So when someone use the excuse that the word "homosexuality" is found nowhere in the Bible, it is okay?
That they need to study up on the use of the word "pornia" as used in the Jewish Diaspora (Greek speaking) community. It was a LOT more than just prostitution. It included beasiality, sex between near kinsmen, sex during menses with your wife; in addition to premarital sex and prostitution.And when someone claims that fornication is just referring to prostitution so that it is okay to have sex before marriage? What do you say to then?
You can find verses that describes the act of uncleanness and there is no way masturbation can escape that as "not referring" to that, especially when we are instructed to bring under submission the infirmity in the flesh.
No. I do not see it there at all.
So answer the question why did regular marital relations render husband and wife "unclean" until sundown and they bathed? regular Sexual relations were COMMANDED between spouses in both testaments. And yet it rendered them unclean.
"fornication" Now you just hit one of my pet peeves..
all kinds of sexing with a person is becoming one with them and is always adultery married or not .
Fornication is probably Porn or voyerisom and other forms of sex books like romance novels. ......... .
Actually it is (if you use the right translation)
That they need to study up on the use of the word "pornia" as used in the Jewish Diaspora (Greek speaking) community. It was a LOT more than just prostitution. It included beasiality, sex between near kinsmen, sex during menses with your wife; in addition to premarital sex and prostitution.
You are assuming that the sex drive (which is a gift from God) is an "infirmity in the flesh." I find that idea self-contradictory. How can it be "of the flesh" and from God at the same time?
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