- Sep 12, 2018
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I've been studying gender roles in the Bible, and in the process I've stumbled across the problem of homosexuality. In the same chapter of Leviticus (18) that asserts, "‘Do not have sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman; that is detestable," the Lord tells Moses that touching a woman while she's menstruating makes her husband unclean. We clearly do not hold that second command today.
Romans 1:26 states, "Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural sexual relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed shameful acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their error." Some have interpreted this verse to mean that the men and women, who were naturally attracted to the opposite sex, intentionally perverted their own sexuality out of lust.
Another idea is that homosexuality has been a sin circumstantially. The Bible declares sex outside of marriage (fornication, adultery, bestiality, etc.) as sexual immorality (a sin against God). Obviously, the time and cultures in which the books were written never would've imagined nor accepted same-sex marriage as valid, so any form of homosexual behavior was adultery/fornication by default. Today, however, it's possible for two men or two women to become lawfully married. If they're married, is it still considered immorality?
Some may also argue that men and women were created to be complementary to one another, which can be backed up with verses. However, Paul commended those who chose celibacy and Jesus himself never married. If a man can thrive spiritually even without a woman, what if he could thrive with a man?
Let me know what you think! Thanks.
Romans 1:26 states, "Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural sexual relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed shameful acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their error." Some have interpreted this verse to mean that the men and women, who were naturally attracted to the opposite sex, intentionally perverted their own sexuality out of lust.
Another idea is that homosexuality has been a sin circumstantially. The Bible declares sex outside of marriage (fornication, adultery, bestiality, etc.) as sexual immorality (a sin against God). Obviously, the time and cultures in which the books were written never would've imagined nor accepted same-sex marriage as valid, so any form of homosexual behavior was adultery/fornication by default. Today, however, it's possible for two men or two women to become lawfully married. If they're married, is it still considered immorality?
Some may also argue that men and women were created to be complementary to one another, which can be backed up with verses. However, Paul commended those who chose celibacy and Jesus himself never married. If a man can thrive spiritually even without a woman, what if he could thrive with a man?
Let me know what you think! Thanks.