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Is,"Good Friday" good?

JDMiowa

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The idea of 'Good Friday' has its roots in Roman Mythology, and ultimately in ancient Babylon in the worship of Tammuz & Semiramis. It is an idea which was inserted into Christianity at the time when the arising Roman Catholic system was mixing paganism with the Christian faith, bringing all manner of abominable practices and beliefs into the church.

"About 200 B.C. mystery cults began to appear in Rome just as they had earlier in Greece. Most notable was the Cybele cult centered on Vatican hill ...Associated with the Cybele cult was that of her lover, Attis (the older Tammuz, Osiris, Dionysus, or Orpheus under a new name). He was a god of ever-reviving vegetation. Born of a virgin, he died and was reborn annually. The festival began as a day of blood on Black Friday and culminated after three days in a day of rejoicing over the resurrection.
 
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JohnMarsten

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The idea of 'Good Friday' has its roots in Roman Mythology, and ultimately in ancient Babylon in the worship of Tammuz & Semiramis. It is an idea which was inserted into Christianity at the time when the arising Roman Catholic system was mixing paganism with the Christian faith, bringing all manner of abominable practices and beliefs into the church.

"About 200 B.C. mystery cults began to appear in Rome just as they had earlier in Greece. Most notable was the Cybele cult centered on Vatican hill ...Associated with the Cybele cult was that of her lover, Attis (the older Tammuz, Osiris, Dionysus, or Orpheus under a new name). He was a god of ever-reviving vegetation. Born of a virgin, he died and was reborn annually. The festival began as a day of blood on Black Friday and culminated after three days in a day of rejoicing over the resurrection.

yep, most 'christian' holidays have their roots in paganism... the names have changed while the feasts remained...

Funny thing that I observed, in the past I was more eager to 'enlighten' people about the origins of certain holidays, trying to show them how pagan or ungodly they actually were... and you know what... not too many people actually cared... if there were any at all that cared...
 
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JDMiowa

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yep, most 'christian' holidays have their roots in paganism... the names have changed while the feasts remained...

Funny thing that I observed, in the past I was more eager to 'enlighten' people about the origins of certain holidays, trying to show them how pagan or ungodly they actually were... and you know what... not too many people actually cared... if there were any at all that cared...
"Most" I must have missed one. Help me out.
 
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JDMiowa

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For those who want to "Prove" a Friday death they must twist themselves into a pretzel. One must be dead for over three days before a death certificate can become, "Official" according to Jewish law.** It is widely taught and believed, "Jewish reckoning of time" allows Jesus to be dead less than three full days, yet at the same time full-filling the requirements of being dead three full days. This application of time reckoning is backwards to all applications of time reckoning presented in scripture. The King that reined two and a half years is given credit for ruling three years, not two years. In the Lord's parable of the laborers, the workers that worked a hour at the end of the day was credited with a full days pay (Matt. 20:1-15). A partial workday was considered a full workday. If a worker worked half a day, the employer could not say, "I owe you nothing, because not working any part of a day, is the same as not working at all that day." It's not what you don’t do that’s enlarged, but what you do. The day Jesus died on the cross he put in twenty-one hours, so the whole day he is considered working, even if he died with three hours left in that twenty- four hour day to go. You cannot say, "Because he died with three hours left to go that day, he was dead the whole day, and did no work that day."
In prophecy a day can also equal a year. In Luke 13:32, Jesus says, "Go tell that fox that, Behold I cast out devils and do cures, today, tomorrow, and the third day** I will be perfected." This is after John the Baptist was arrested. Most scholars agree John died six months into Jesus ministry. When Jesus said, "the third day** I will be perfected," He was saying he had three more full years to do miracles, then he will be glorified, not in two years, but three. The correct way to apply Jewish reckoning of time to a Friday Crucifixion and Sunday Resurrection would be, Jesus worked all day Friday, was dead Saturday and worked all day Sunday. It's a good thing God credits us only for what we do for Jesus, and places on Jesus to bear what we did not do for him. How long did Jesus delay before raising Lazarus from, “the dead?" The answer is recorded in the 11th and 12th chapters of the fourth gospel. Did Jesus delay past three days to prove "officially"** he can raise Lazarus and likewise us from the dead? Was Jesus "officially"**dead? You decide for yourself.
 
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JDMiowa

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Is it from the Father of Lights or the Father of Darkness?

James 1:17
Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of lights, with whom can be no variation, nor turning shadow.

The Jesus that was in the grave three days and three nights is from the Father above. It was an imposter that was in the grave for one night and one day.
 
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JDMiowa

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Let's consider Mark 16:1, the women BOUGHT spices AFTER the Sabbath, the Gospel of Luke Ch.23:55-56 says that the women PREPARED spices at home BEFORE the Sabbath! Can both be true? First we know it is, but how. In the original text the women bought the spices after the Sabbaths (plural) only a special sabbath is plural, so they couldn't have bought it (after) a seventh day sabbath.
 
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Digout

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The idea of 'Good Friday' has its roots in Roman Mythology, and ultimately in ancient Babylon in the worship of Tammuz & Semiramis. It is an idea which was inserted into Christianity at the time when the arising Roman Catholic system was mixing paganism with the Christian faith, bringing all manner of abominable practices and beliefs into the church.

"About 200 B.C. mystery cults began to appear in Rome just as they had earlier in Greece. Most notable was the Cybele cult centered on Vatican hill ...Associated with the Cybele cult was that of her lover, Attis (the older Tammuz, Osiris, Dionysus, or Orpheus under a new name). He was a god of ever-reviving vegetation. Born of a virgin, he died and was reborn annually. The festival began as a day of blood on Black Friday and culminated after three days in a day of rejoicing over the resurrection.

Whatever, I consider that it is a good Friday because of the coming Easter Sunday(Resurrection day!) Otherwise, it would have been a black Friday!
 
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Ubuntu

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Let's consider Mark 16:1, the women BOUGHT spices AFTER the Sabbath, the Gospel of Luke Ch.23:55-56 says that the women PREPARED spices at home BEFORE the Sabbath! Can both be true? First we know it is, but how.

Ellen White says that not all women arrived at the grave at the same time, and I think this is a plausible explanation of this. If the women were separated, if they didn't go to the grave as one, large, group, they could have bought spices separately. Luke mentioned that spices were bought by unnamed "women who had accompanied Jesus" *before* the Sabbath, while Mark says that Mary Magdalene, Mary the mother of James, and Salome bought aromatic spices *after* the sabbath. The simple explanation is that spices were bought both before as well as after the Sabbath, and that the woman didn't all go to the grave together.

In the original text the women bought the spices after the Sabbaths (plural) only a special sabbath is plural, so they couldn't have bought it (after) a seventh day sabbath.

No, "Sabbath" is singular in Mark 16:1, not plural. The same goes for Luke 23:56, that's singular too.

I suppose what you're really referring to is Luke 24:1 which is translated: "Now on the first day of the week, at early dawn, the women went to the tomb, taking the aromatic spices they had prepared."

The phrase, "the first day of the week" is literally "On the first [day since] the Sabbaths" in Greek. (Plural genitive) This is because the Jews referred to the days of the week by counting from the Sabbath, they didn't have specific names for any of the other days. Thus the word Sabbath itself in some places simply means "week". An example of this is Jesus parable of the Pharisee and the Tax collector. "The Pharisee stood and prayed about himself like this: 'God, I thank you that I am not like other people: [...] I fast twice a week." The Greek literally has the Pharisee in the parable say "I fast twice a Sabbath", but that wouldn't make any sense to us today, because it's the week, not the Sabbath that's referred to.

Another example is 1 Corinthians 16:1-2:

"With regard to the collection for the saints, please follow the directions that I gave to the churches of Galatia: On the first day of the week, each of you should set aside some income and save it to the extent that God has blessed you."

The original Greek is literally "on the first [of] Sabbath", interestingly many manuscripts here has the genitive plural form too, making the phrase nearly identical to Luke 24:1. So no, this expression doesn't point to some "special" sabbath even if plural is used, it's a Jewish idom and it refers to the week itself.

- - -

I understand that some might have difficulties understanding how Jesus were supposed to be three days in the grave like Jonah, when the classical understanding of this is that the Sabbath was the only full day that Jesus rested in the grave. But we create far more difficulties for ourselves than we solve by insisting that he literally spent 72 hours in the grave. We err if we try to impose our western, modern day mindset on the Biblical narrative, the Jews thought about time differently than we do.
 
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J

James 537

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For those who want to "Prove" a Friday death they must twist themselves into a pretzel. One must be dead for over three days before a death certificate can become, "Official" according to Jewish law.** It is widely taught and believed, "Jewish reckoning of time" allows Jesus to be dead less than three full days, yet at the same time full-filling the requirements of being dead three full days. This application of time reckoning is backwards to all applications of time reckoning presented in scripture. The King that reined two and a half years is given credit for ruling three years, not two years. In the Lord's parable of the laborers, the workers that worked a hour at the end of the day was credited with a full days pay (Matt. 20:1-15). A partial workday was considered a full workday. If a worker worked half a day, the employer could not say, "I owe you nothing, because not working any part of a day, is the same as not working at all that day." It's not what you don’t do that’s enlarged, but what you do. The day Jesus died on the cross he put in twenty-one hours, so the whole day he is considered working, even if he died with three hours left in that twenty- four hour day to go. You cannot say, "Because he died with three hours left to go that day, he was dead the whole day, and did no work that day."
In prophecy a day can also equal a year. In Luke 13:32, Jesus says, "Go tell that fox that, Behold I cast out devils and do cures, today, tomorrow, and the third day** I will be perfected." This is after John the Baptist was arrested. Most scholars agree John died six months into Jesus ministry. When Jesus said, "the third day** I will be perfected," He was saying he had three more full years to do miracles, then he will be glorified, not in two years, but three. The correct way to apply Jewish reckoning of time to a Friday Crucifixion and Sunday Resurrection would be, Jesus worked all day Friday, was dead Saturday and worked all day Sunday. It's a good thing God credits us only for what we do for Jesus, and places on Jesus to bear what we did not do for him. How long did Jesus delay before raising Lazarus from, “the dead?" The answer is recorded in the 11th and 12th chapters of the fourth gospel. Did Jesus delay past three days to prove "officially"** he can raise Lazarus and likewise us from the dead? Was Jesus "officially"**dead? You decide for yourself.


Matthew 12 Jesus said He would be in the grave 3 days and 3 nights..it is tough to fit that into in the Friday afternoon death to Sunday early resurrection don't you think..must have been Wednesday or Thursday death on the cross..but there is a clue, the following day was the annual sabbath, first day of unleavened bread, which followed the Passover..so looks like Wednesday to me!
 
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EastCoastRemnant

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Does the 4th day crucifiction with the 5th being a sabbath make numerical sense to the narrative? absolutely!

JDM, your observation of comparing Lazarus' death to that of Christ's is worthy of prayer and contemplation... I don't honour or celebrate the pagan spring ritual, so it becomes a moot point for me.. don't see it as salvational, so i don't dwell apon it.
 
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CaptainToad

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I agree, isn't a salvational issue. But belief in a Wednesday death will get your name removed from the membership in the Mason City SDA Church.

Really? Thats kinda tough - especially when to comes to a non-salvatonial issue...
 
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EastCoastRemnant

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I agree, isn't a salvational issue. But belief in a Wednesday death will get your name removed from the membership in the Mason City SDA Church.

Sad... keep the leadership of any churches you know in prayer as well as the leadership of the conferences. Many are in error and need our humble petitions... the conference may be judged and fund wanting but the individuals within still have a little time of probation.
 
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