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Infant Baptism, why do you reject it?

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Melethiel

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But are we united on the essentials of the faith? Lutherans, for example, would say that the Sacraments, for example, are essentials of the faith, while baptists would disagree.

Of course, my answer is, Lutherans truly follow Sola Scriptura, and everyone else has persona l interpretations.
 
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Borealis

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MikeMcK said:
And this is a very common misunderstanding of what Sola Scriptura is. It doesn't lead to "personal interpretations".
How can it not? You're bound only to what you see in the Bible. You don't see the way someone else does, so who's seeing the real truth?
While the Bible does teach priesthood of the believer, the believer is still bound to orthodoxy and the essential teachings of Christianity as spelled out in the historic creeds and confessions of historic Christianity.
Certainly doesn't look that way. Historic Christianity is accepted by Protestants only insofar as it doesn't contradict with their personal beliefs.
They're not 'united on the essentials, they can't even agree on what the essentials are! Do you follow everything in the Apostles Creed? Or the Nicene Creed? EVERYTHING? Including 'one baptism FOR THE FORGIVENESS OF SINS?' How about 'the communion of saints?'

For every Protestant that says 'yes' to either of those, I'll show you half a dozen who say 'no.'
 
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MikeMcK

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Borealis said:
How can it not? You're bound only to what you see in the Bible.

There's a big difference between teh Bible being ou authority and having a "personal interpretation" of the Bible.

Certainly doesn't look that way. Historic Christianity is accepted by Protestants only insofar as it doesn't contradict with their personal beliefs.

While, technically, I am not a Protestant, I don't believe that this is true. It certainly hasn't been evident in my experience with protestants.

They're not 'united on the essentials, they can't even agree on what the essentials are!

And, again, I disagree.

If you believe this, then please feel free to show us what these disagreements are.

For every Protestant that says 'yes' to either of those, I'll show you half a dozen who say 'no.'

That's fine. According to Paul, they're allowed to disagree over such "disputable matters".
 
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Borealis

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MikeMcK said:
There's a big difference between teh Bible being ou authority and having a "personal interpretation" of the Bible.
Only in your imagination.
While, technically, I am not a Protestant, I don't believe that this is true. It certainly hasn't been evident in my experience with protestants.
Quit claiming you're not a Protestant. You're not Catholic, you're not Orthodox. That means you're a Protestant.
That's fine. According to Paul, they're allowed to disagree over such "disputable matters".
Disputable matters? BAPTISM is a disputable matter?

Thank you for completely proving my point. There are no 'essentials' in Protestant beliefs that are not disputed by someone.
 
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MikeMcK

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Borealis said:
Only in your imagination.

No, they're two different things.

Quit claiming you're not a Protestant. You're not Catholic, you're not Orthodox. That means you're a Protestant.

I'm sorry, but since the traditions my branch of the church was born out of existed long before the Reformation, technically, that would make us not Protestants.

Disputable matters? BAPTISM is a disputable matter?

Yes.

Thank you for completely proving my point. There are no 'essentials' in Protestant beliefs that are not disputed by someone.

Your point hasn't been proven. You still haven't named one essential we disagree on.
 
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TamaraLynne

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Hi everyone......I'm not as knowledgable as most in here. I was baptized catholic as a child but later was baptised again. I felt a very strong desire to be baptised again.......full immerssion. But I was under the impression that if the parents are beleivers then their children are sanctified. Is this something different?




Love
Tam
 
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TruthMiner

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Yes it is something different. 1 Corinthians 7:14.... a reference not to salvation but to being set apart due to the union with a believer.
 
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TruthMiner

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Been reading imaginary history again have we?

The first clue that you might be a Protestant is your protests.

"You might be a Protestant if...."
 
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TamaraLynne

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TruthMiner said:
Yes it is something different. 1 Corinthians 7:14.... a reference not to salvation but to being set apart due to the union with a believer.
Hmmmm.........I did ask awhile ago(asked my husband) why some people baptize their babies. He told me it brought them more comfort..........which I understand being a mom myself. But I found more comfort in that my children were sanctified first.......then when they come of age they have a choice as to whether or not they love Jesus.
Understanding who Jesus is and chosing to follow himand then to be baptised. But you know what.....if someone wants to baptize their baby............then rebaptize later when they understand.........I see no problem.

It's alot better then no baptism at all like some preach.

Maybe someone can explain being sanctified by the parents ..........maybe I just don't understand.

Love
Tam
 
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Borealis

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It's not necessarily something we're meant to understand. You tell your young children not to touch the hot stove, right? Or warn them about sticking forks in light sockets? They don't necessarily understand WHY you're telling them this (though they can find out the hard way), but if they are obedient, they do as you say.

God commanded his people to sanctify their children to him, first through circumcision, then after Christ's coming, through baptism. Remember, the Old Covenant presages the New, just as the Old Testament reflects the New. Infant males were circumcised at the tender age of 8 days. The same is done with baptism, for all children (and as a bonus, baptism is much less painful than circumcision). It is God's wish; we should be obedient.
 
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Lynn73

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Sorry, you do nothing but confuse me. We're definitely not on the same page. I think maybe you should read this. Abraham had faith while he was still uncircumsized and it was counted to him for righteousness. In the same way, we have faith in Christ BEFORE we're baptized. You won't convince me that a person can't have true faith in Christ unless they've been under water. That's a fallacy. I don't understand you, frankly, and how do you know that you aren't the one minsinterpreting Scripture?






If Abraham's faith was counted to him for righteousness before he ever received the seal of circumcision, what makes you think we can have no real saving faith before being put under water? Come on. That isn't even logical nor has no common sense NOR do I believe it agrees with Scripture. Faith in Christ saves and our faith in Him isn't dependent upon whether we've been baptized. I guess it's a continuing agree to disagree situation.
[/FONT]
 
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FaithInTheWord

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KEPLER said:
This position has absolutely ZERO support from Scripture.

You CANNOT work from "the only example we have is..." and base a doctrine on that. Preposterous.

[/COLOR]
I was only agreeing the point that based on scripture of no infant being baptized in the New Testament that being baptized is an act of free will. Now if at anytime I list a comment that you would like a full and detailed scripture listing, just say the word, and I will oblige you with such information…
 
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MikeMcK

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TruthMiner said:
Been reading imaginary history again have we?

The Bible is not "imaginary history".

The first clue that you might be a Protestant is your protests.

Protestants were born out of the Reformation. Baptists and Anabaptists existed long before the Reformation.

If you don't believe so, then please feel free to explain why each of the Baptist Distinctives are clearly taught in scripture or, as you call it, "imaginary history".
 
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jckstraw72

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If you don't believe so, then please feel free to explain why each of the Baptist Distinctives are clearly taught in scripture or, as you call it, "imaginary history".

yeah, cause every Protestant church wont make the same claim.
 
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mark75

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KEPLER,

You have given me a great response; now, let me see if I can respond to you. (I would have done so yesterday, but for some reason, I couldn't log on to CF; don't know if anyone else was having the same problem. Anyway, better late than never I suppose.)

First let me say that you are right to point out the wording of Eph. 2:8-9 "by grace, through faith." Didn't mean to use awkward wording to discuss faith.

KEPLER said:
The Eastern Orthodox immerse their infants. They have always immersed their infants (three times, in fact!) .So, how does your argument work against them?

Obviously this would be irrelevant to EO. However, it would not be irrelevant to the many that do practice immersion. There's not a good blanket statement to make that is going to cover all the differences between the different groups who practice infant baptism. Bottom line is that if they don't practice effusion, but immersion, then they wouldn't apply. But there are groups, such as Rom Cath, who do not practice immersion of infants or of anyone for that matter. Those are the groups to whom I refer. I'm sorry if I didn't clarify that.


The passages in Mark 7:4 and Luke 11:38 are both referring to the washing of hands before a meal. This reference is still keeping in the definition of "baptizo" meaning to "immerse." The verb "baptizo" doesn't specify in and of its definition as to whether it must be used with respect to a person or to an inanimate object. The act of immersing one's hands would have obviously been part of the washing of hands. I'm not quite sure what your connection is to what I was saying about the word "baptizo" itself.

My point was that "baptize" was not even an English word until the translation of the English Bible. In its original context of the Greek language, its meanings were "to dip, dunk, or immerse." The word does not connote what the purpose of the dipping, dunking, or immersing is. It only refers to the act itself. So anything accomplished by dipping, dunking, or immersing could be functions of this word in its original language setting. And so it could and was used to refer to acts of bathing or washing utensils. But, I would think we can all see the difference in context between those types of uses and baptism are two different contexts. Because the word was used in these two passages to refer to dipping, dunking, or immersing for the purpose of washing or cleansing, it is erroneous to assume therefore that all references to dipping, dunking, and immersing are for the purpose of washing and cleansing.

My response to your point here is that you are reading too much into the definition of a Greek verb that was brought over into English specifically in 1511 with the KJV. (Incidentally, don't forget that these practices were not in the keeping of Jesus and His disciples, but the Pharisees, so these practices of ceremonial washing are not being taught for our imitation.)


KEPLER said:
  1. Neither Lutherans, Eastern Orthodox, nor Roman Catholics believe in "once saved, always saved," so your crtique really doesn't apply.

I am not even speaking to the issue of the security of the believer; rather, I am speaking of original sin. I'm not sure what your point is here. In fact, I was reading my post several times to make sure, but I don't see anything in it that even has anything to do with the doctrine of the security of the believer. That's a different topic altogether. (BTW, I don't know if this is the case or not, but in case it is, let me just say this now. I'm sure that you looked at my profile to see that I am a Baptist by denomination; and I'm sure you have some view about Baptist that are "stereotypical," for lack of a better word. Please don't let your views of the Baptist denomination color your comments to me. I am not speaking to you as a Baptist, but as a Biblical theologian and linguist. If this is not the case, then forgive my comment, and I'll continue.)


First, Presbyterians baptize babies as a form of dedication to the Lord. It has no salvific import at all. I have family who are Presbyterian by denomination and can say that from experience in talking with them and their minister. And again, this has nothing to do with the doctrine of the security of the believer anyway, so, again, I don't understand the significance of that comment. The doctrine of original sin and the doctrine of the security of the believer are two different biblical doctrines.

I can only conlude Mark, that you do not understand the doctrine of Baptism as the EO, RC, Lutherans Presbyterians define it. (For that matter, I would further say that you also don't udnerstand baptism as the Scriptures define it...)

First, let me say that I'd be careful with such strong comments as that; many would perceive that as disrespectful or rude (the last part of it, that is).

EO: Bishop Alexander Mileant in "Baptism and Chrismation - "This power of grace permeates the soul of the person submerged in water during baptism...The baptism of an infant reflects the parents’ burning desire to have their child partake of Christ’s blessings as soon as possible. Having been baptized, the child starts to develop in a church environment.

RC: Catholic Encyclopedia, Section on Baptism, Part XII: Effects of Baptism:
1. The Remission of All Sin, Original and Actual
(There are 4 others, but the first is the one relevant to our conversation.)

Lutherans: Wayne Weissenbuehler (Lutheran Minister/Theologian in Colo.) in an article "Infant Baptism": "We believe that in baptism God adopts us into Jesus Christ as his child for time and eternity through the word, water and Spirit. It incorporates us into Christ's body the church. So begins the life of faith. Certainly there is no evidence that Jesus wants to exclude infants from this."

I'd like to think I have a little bit of knowledge regarding the stance other churches have taken on Baptism, esp. infant baptism.


I have said nothing that even hints of gnosticism. God can work through whatever means He chooses, and in His Word, He has revealed the means through which He chooses to work with salvation and baptism. There are most certainly two primary ways in which "baptism" is used in the NT. We already know the literal ones, but its the other one we get hung up on. Please allow me to give you a bible study:

a. Jesus Himself is described in John 1:33 as "the One who baptizes with the Holy Spirit."
b. 1 Cor. 12:13 tells us that we are all baptized into one body and made to drink of one Spirit.

This is the other type of baptism I was referring to. Yes, Scripture uses the allegory of water many times to refer to the Holy Spirit, but again, what has this to do with whether babies should be baptized. I don't separate the washing of the Holy Spirit from salvation. But I do separate it from the ordinance of baptism that takes place in a literal body of water as an outward picture of an inward change. A literal body of water is not needed for the baptism of the Holy Spirit, as seen in Acts 8:15-17;10:44; and v.47 shows the separateness of these two acts. There are other verses that could be quoted, but I think you get the point.


If you will read the remainder of this paragraph, you will see that Peter is talking about the Day of the Lord, and in that context, he is reminding the readers of how the earth was once destroyed in the days of Noah, and will once again be destroyed in the end. My point is that you have removed the context of this passage and made it to mean something it was never intended to mean.


With exception of Presbyterians, Lutherans, and EO, I would encourage you to check out the articles of belief from the RC church and you will see that their outlook for an infant who dies without first being baptized, (which is the only way into the Church, according to their theology), is not very good at all.

God Bless you as well, and I look forward to more dialogue with you. Sorry for the long post, but it was a lengthy topic.

Mark
 
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mark75

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KEPLER,

You have given me a great response; now, let me see if I can respond to you. (I would have done so yesterday, but for some reason, I couldn't log on to CF; don't know if anyone else was having the same problem. Anyway, better late than never I suppose.)

First let me say that you are right to point out the wording of Eph. 2:8-9 "by grace, through faith." Didn't mean to use awkward wording to discuss faith.

KEPLER said:
The Eastern Orthodox immerse their infants. They have always immersed their infants (three times, in fact!) .So, how does your argument work against them?

Obviously this would be irrelevant to EO. However, it would not be irrelevant to the many that do practice immersion. There's not a good blanket statement to make that is going to cover all the differences between the different groups who practice infant baptism. Bottom line is that if they don't practice effusion, but immersion, then they wouldn't apply. But there are groups, such as Rom Cath, who do not practice immersion of infants or of anyone for that matter. Those are the groups to whom I refer. I'm sorry if I didn't clarify that.


The passages in Mark 7:4 and Luke 11:38 are both referring to the washing of hands before a meal. This reference is still keeping in the definition of "baptizo" meaning to "immerse." The verb "baptizo" doesn't specify in and of its definition as to whether it must be used with respect to a person or to an inanimate object. The act of immersing one's hands would have obviously been part of the washing of hands. I'm not quite sure what your connection is to what I was saying about the word "baptizo" itself.

My point was that "baptize" was not even an English word until the translation of the English Bible. In its original context of the Greek language, its meanings were "to dip, dunk, or immerse." The word does not connote what the purpose of the dipping, dunking, or immersing is. It only refers to the act itself. So anything accomplished by dipping, dunking, or immersing could be functions of this word in its original language setting. And so it could and was used to refer to acts of bathing or washing utensils. But, I would think we can all see the difference in context between those types of uses and baptism are two different contexts. Because the word was used in these two passages to refer to dipping, dunking, or immersing for the purpose of washing or cleansing, it is erroneous to assume therefore that all references to dipping, dunking, and immersing are for the purpose of washing and cleansing.

My response to your point here is that you are reading too much into the definition of a Greek verb that was brought over into English specifically in 1511 with the KJV. (Incidentally, don't forget that these practices were not in the keeping of Jesus and His disciples, but the Pharisees, so these practices of ceremonial washing are not being taught for our imitation.)


KEPLER said:
  1. Neither Lutherans, Eastern Orthodox, nor Roman Catholics believe in "once saved, always saved," so your crtique really doesn't apply.

I am not even speaking to the issue of the security of the believer; rather, I am speaking of original sin. I'm not sure what your point is here. In fact, I was reading my post several times to make sure, but I don't see anything in it that even has anything to do with the doctrine of the security of the believer. That's a different topic altogether. (BTW, I don't know if this is the case or not, but in case it is, let me just say this now. I'm sure that you looked at my profile to see that I am a Baptist by denomination; and I'm sure you have some view about Baptist that are "stereotypical," for lack of a better word. Please don't let your views of the Baptist denomination color your comments to me. I am not speaking to you as a Baptist, but as a Biblical theologian and linguist. If this is not the case, then forgive my comment, and I'll continue.)


First, Presbyterians baptize babies as a form of dedication to the Lord. It has no salvific import at all. I have family who are Presbyterian by denomination and can say that from experience in talking with them and their minister. And again, this has nothing to do with the doctrine of the security of the believer anyway, so, again, I don't understand the significance of that comment. The doctrine of original sin and the doctrine of the security of the believer are two different biblical doctrines.

I can only conlude Mark, that you do not understand the doctrine of Baptism as the EO, RC, Lutherans Presbyterians define it. (For that matter, I would further say that you also don't udnerstand baptism as the Scriptures define it...)

First, let me say that I'd be careful with such strong comments as that; many would perceive that as disrespectful or rude (the last part of it, that is).

EO: Bishop Alexander Mileant in "Baptism and Chrismation - "This power of grace permeates the soul of the person submerged in water during baptism...The baptism of an infant reflects the parents’ burning desire to have their child partake of Christ’s blessings as soon as possible. Having been baptized, the child starts to develop in a church environment.

RC: Catholic Encyclopedia, Section on Baptism, Part XII: Effects of Baptism:
1. The Remission of All Sin, Original and Actual
(There are 4 others, but the first is the one relevant to our conversation.)

Lutherans: Wayne Weissenbuehler (Lutheran Minister/Theologian in Colo.) in an article "Infant Baptism": "We believe that in baptism God adopts us into Jesus Christ as his child for time and eternity through the word, water and Spirit. It incorporates us into Christ's body the church. So begins the life of faith. Certainly there is no evidence that Jesus wants to exclude infants from this."

I'd like to think I have a little bit of knowledge regarding the stance other churches have taken on Baptism, esp. infant baptism.


I have said nothing that even hints of gnosticism. God can work through whatever means He chooses, and in His Word, He has revealed the means through which He chooses to work with salvation and baptism. There are most certainly two primary ways in which "baptism" is used in the NT. We already know the literal ones, but its the other one we get hung up on. Please allow me to give you a bible study:

a. Jesus Himself is described in John 1:33 as "the One who baptizes with the Holy Spirit."
b. 1 Cor. 12:13 tells us that we are all baptized into one body and made to drink of one Spirit.

This is the other type of baptism I was referring to. Yes, Scripture uses the allegory of water many times to refer to the Holy Spirit, but again, what has this to do with whether babies should be baptized. I don't separate the washing of the Holy Spirit from salvation. But I do separate it from the ordinance of baptism that takes place in a literal body of water as an outward picture of an inward change. A literal body of water is not needed for the baptism of the Holy Spirit, as seen in Acts 8:15-17;10:44; and v.47 shows the separateness of these two acts. There are other verses that could be quoted, but I think you get the point.


If you will read the remainder of this paragraph, you will see that Peter is talking about the Day of the Lord, and in that context, he is reminding the readers of how the earth was once destroyed in the days of Noah, and will once again be destroyed in the end. My point is that you have removed the context of this passage and made it to mean something it was never intended to mean.


With exception of Presbyterians, Lutherans, and EO, I would encourage you to check out the articles of belief from the RC church and you will see that their outlook for an infant who dies without first being baptized, (which is the only way into the Church, according to their theology), is not very good at all.

God Bless you as well, and I look forward to more dialogue with you. Sorry for the long post, but it was a lengthy topic.

Mark
 
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Oblio

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I'm not sure who this is, but he is not describing the dogma of the Church concerning Holy Baptism, therefore I would say that if you are going by his description, then you do not understand the EO view. You are welcome to visit TAW to find out what the Church teaches.
 
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Oblio

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Incorrect WRT the EOC, see above post.
 
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