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The idea of her being sinless is unbiblical. Unless you think the Bible can be wrong and not everyone is a sinner and fallen short of His glory? Romans 3
ahh, sorry for any confusion.
How can a church be sinless when they all have people in them?
It's really an impossibility. Unbelievers may sit in our pews and many even serve in our churches, but they are not members of the Church.
Who founded your church and why? It's a good history lesson.
i dont have to interview them, just look up their doctrines online.
futhermore, i have seen the EO defend her sinlessness.
Joseph of Arimathaea, possibly in the company of one or more of the Apostles. At least that is what the historical record indicates. And you ask "Why?" I'd say that "Why" any of the ancient Christian churches was founded was in order to carry out Christ's commission to go into the whole world, preach, the Gospel, and make disciples.
Are you quite sure it wasn't Henry VIII?
Honestly, I do not believe that you can find online what every Christian of the first century said about his beliefs. You said that "no one in the ancient Churches from the beginning ever dared think she had sin."
If you find such a site, please let all of us know. But I'd advise caution about making the internet the basis of your religious beliefs in any case.
Why don't you just post that then? It would be worth more to this thread than a search for what every Christian of the first century believed. And we both know that despite you sticking your neck out to say that not a single Christian in any of the early churches believed Mary ever had sin, you are just talking and don't have any way of knowing.
Yes, quite sure.
Explaining the entire history of the church would take some time, you understand, but the all-too-familiar theory that outsiders have about Henry and the church is in error.
Ok, Albion, let us get into this deeper ....it is with utmost proof that anytime someone 'disagreed' with the Church, they were argued against, and sometimes most often removed via excommunication.
So, i dont think any disagreed with the sinlessness of Mary... or we would have it written somewhere in argument.
However; there are writings from the East calling her the Immaculata.
Since no one argued against her grace
Such a site...?
Ok, Albion, let us get into this deeper ....it is with utmost proof that anytime someone 'disagreed' with the Church, they were argued against, and sometimes most often removed via excommunication. If their grievous errors were not repented....
And for those who were considered good fathers, but did not report 100% the same teachings, they did not receive the title Saint.
Oregin is one example of this.
Because of his stand on some issues he never got title Saint.
So, i dont think any disagreed with the sinlessness of Mary... or we would have it written somewhere in argument.
However; there are writings from the East calling her the Immaculata.
Since no one argued against her grace [and i already posted what kecharitomene
meant], it was highly unlikely since they knew the language that they would have a case to argue against that.
The ancient Church did not embrace relativism.
How so? I have always run with that.
In the early 5th century, Nestorius was preaching that Mary was not the mother God.
At 431 AD, the Council of Ephesus condemned Nestorius's teaching as heresy and affirmed that Mary was the "mother of God"
See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Council_of_Ephesus
First how the Pope from the West came to dogmatize the concept.<just curious>
How do they do that?
SO NO...it didnt take 1854 years.
You may not have noticed, but none of that extensive cut and pasting shows that the belief was from the beginning...and that is what you are out to prove because that is what you claimed is the case.
I for one acknowledge that the idea of the I. C. was around for awhile before the Papacy made it into a dogma, but it was not an Apostolic belief, just an opinion that men added as they sought to increase devotion to Mary.
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