K
KATHXOYMENOC
Guest
Orthodox soteriology, according to some, says that there is a distinction between being made in God's "image" and being made in His "likeness," based on the fact that two different Hebrew and Greek words are used in Genesis 1:26. They say that the "image" was retained at the Fall, but the "likeness" was lost or marred, and our θεωσις (theôsis) is the regaining of this "likeness."
A couple comments:
a) The distinction between "image" and "likeness" is I think a strained one, and I'm not sure that many Hebrew scholars would argue for it. Hebrew sometimes uses repetitions of similar or related words for emphasis, poetic structure (see, e.g., the Psalms), etc., to strengthen or convey the same idea, and I think that may be what is going on at Genesis 1:26. (Also, Genesis 5:1 says that Adam was made in God's "likeness," with no mention of "image," and in 5:3, it says that Adam had a son in his "likeness" and "image." Thus, "image" and "likeness" seem to be interchangeable.)
b) Furthermore, James 3:9 says that men have been made or are made (perfect participle, indicating a "state" and not just a past action) in God's "likeness." This seems contrary to the idea that men have lost or distorted the "likeness" of God and must somehow acquire or renew it, for otherwise James, IMO, would have used the word "image" and/or have used the aorist, and not the perfect.
How foundational is this theology to Orthodoxy, and what are the consequences if this is based on an incorrect interpretation of Genesis 1:26?
A couple comments:
a) The distinction between "image" and "likeness" is I think a strained one, and I'm not sure that many Hebrew scholars would argue for it. Hebrew sometimes uses repetitions of similar or related words for emphasis, poetic structure (see, e.g., the Psalms), etc., to strengthen or convey the same idea, and I think that may be what is going on at Genesis 1:26. (Also, Genesis 5:1 says that Adam was made in God's "likeness," with no mention of "image," and in 5:3, it says that Adam had a son in his "likeness" and "image." Thus, "image" and "likeness" seem to be interchangeable.)
b) Furthermore, James 3:9 says that men have been made or are made (perfect participle, indicating a "state" and not just a past action) in God's "likeness." This seems contrary to the idea that men have lost or distorted the "likeness" of God and must somehow acquire or renew it, for otherwise James, IMO, would have used the word "image" and/or have used the aorist, and not the perfect.
How foundational is this theology to Orthodoxy, and what are the consequences if this is based on an incorrect interpretation of Genesis 1:26?