Id like this answered by a priest please...

[Jaxxi]

Why in Ezekial does God call him 'Son of Man'? I thought Jesus was the 'Son of Man'?

 

[Aelred of Rievaulx]

I'm not a priest but I did study with many of them. In Ezekiel the "son of Man" is generally thought to be a sentiment emphasising humanity. When used by Jesus in the Gospels I think it harkens back to Daniel rather than Ezekiel. And in Daniel, I would say that it's a description of the Holy of Holies in the Temple opening and the High Priest entering, this is my own quirky interpretation of the text owing in no small part to Crispin Fletcher-Louis's work on divinised humanity in the Second Temple period. Jesus, according to CFL, considered himself to be the Messianic High Priest.

 

[Jaxxi]

I'm not a priest but I did study with many of them. In Ezekiel the "son of Man" is generally thought to be a sentiment emphasising humanity. When used by Jesus in the Gospels I think it harkens back to Daniel rather than Ezekiel. And in Daniel, I would say that it's a description of the Holy of Holies in the Temple opening and the High Priest entering, this is my own quirky interpretation of the text owing in no small part to Crispin Fletcher-Louis's work on divinised humanity in the Second Temple period. Jesus, according to CFL, considered himself to be the Messianic High Priest.

And He wouldve been, no? I just find it confusing because it is such a distinct label. Son of Man.

 

[Benjamin caughman]

I know this may not be my place, but we too are "son of man" yet also children of YHWH. So he may also be referring to the physical person as a "son of man". I hope this didn't interupt. Thank you