I have often used the yom defense regarding Genesis 1 - that it means "period of time". However, I noticed a pattern in the grammar: "and there was evening and there was morning, the first day". This pattern is at the end of the description of the first 6 yoms. I thought that perhaps 'evening and morning' might signify the passage of time, but "the first day" is an appositive directly afterward...
Then when giving direction on the Sabbath & the end of the week (Exodus 20:11), it seems that God Himself affirms YECism!
Or does it? I recently looked at Gap Theory again, and seems like it might work, except I seem to remember science discovering human settlements older than ~6000 years...
It begins to seem like the only option remaining is that God deceived us... unless I am missing some context or something...
Perhaps someone more knowledgeable than I can help me? I know this is something like a double post, but I desperately need a working interpretation, or I shall need to have this moved to 'Questions by Non-Christians'...
One last thought: Could it be that God made a pun explaining the Fourth Commandment, using both meanings of "yom"?
Then when giving direction on the Sabbath & the end of the week (Exodus 20:11), it seems that God Himself affirms YECism!
Or does it? I recently looked at Gap Theory again, and seems like it might work, except I seem to remember science discovering human settlements older than ~6000 years...
It begins to seem like the only option remaining is that God deceived us... unless I am missing some context or something...
Perhaps someone more knowledgeable than I can help me? I know this is something like a double post, but I desperately need a working interpretation, or I shall need to have this moved to 'Questions by Non-Christians'...
One last thought: Could it be that God made a pun explaining the Fourth Commandment, using both meanings of "yom"?