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you are assuming that it was a normal marriage
Perhaps the association that is made in the above quote between virgins in Israel's temple and vestal virgins in a Roman pagan temple is just plain stupid?
I reckon that it is a very poor argument made worse for lack of sound foundations in history and logic. So how about dropping it and discussing the thread's topic?
I am. However, what do you expect from ancient gentile Christians whose immediate intellectual and social context was what was inherited from Greece and Rome? Surely you don't think they should have been prescient enough to use Evangelical Protestant young women with Promise Rings as their model, right?
I see this as you justifying your presuppositions by taking the association as far as possible to draw a genetic link between the pagan Vestal Virgins and the portrayal of Mary and virginity in Marian traditions. It is a laughable genetic fallacy that you employ for the purposes of demonization as well as a striking example of Parallelomania.
...apparitions, such as Fatima. Eucharistic bleeding miracles, that are confirmed with science? I also recently read in OBOB about a certain saint, that on the celebration of his feast day, every single year, a vial of his blood liquifies before the congregation; the one time it didn't liquify, in 1980, there was an earthquake that killed a lot of people in the region in which this miracle takes place.
Then there's also a bleeding Eucharist miracle that was scientifically tested. The Eucharist fell to the floor, where it began to bleed. Testing was positive for a damaged human heart...
Just curious how non-Catholics reconcile these things. And of course, Mary's wish for Russia to convert with her apparition at Fatima apparently came to pass with the Russian Orthodox Church.
If you do not understand the difference between godly desire for your wife and lust, I can't help you beyond saying one is sin and one is ordained of God. The two are as different as poop and chocolate pudding.Where did you get this idea that strong sexual desire is not lust?
cool hand luke - YouTubewhat we have here is a breakdown of communication
If you do not understand the difference between godly desire for your wife and lust, I can't help you beyond saying one is sin and one is ordained of God. The two are as different as poop and chocolate pudding.
I get my definition fromHaving strong sexual desires (lust) for your wife is not a sin. Never has been, never will...
By the way, where are you getting your definition of the word lust? Im curious, that's all.
No, that's not what it says. "Heos" references the past, never the future. Instead, "not until" she bore a son means "not up to the point that" she bore a son.
Matt. 28:29 - I am with you "until the end of the world." This does not mean Jesus is not with us after the end of the world.
I get my definition from
Mark 4:19, John 8:44, Romans 1;24, 6;12, 13:14, Galatians 5:24, Ephesians 2:3, 4:22, 1 Timothy 6:9, 2 Timothy 2:22, 3:6, 4:3, Titus 2:12, 3:3, James 4:1, 4:3, 1 Peter 1:14, 2:11, 4:2, 4:3, 2 Peter 2:18, 3:3, Jude 16 and 18.
Hope that helps.
Guys can we please get back on topic? This thread isn't about what lust is or isn't.
Because I have no issue with desire. I have an issue when it means:lewdness, lechery, lust, carnality, libidinousness. Not when it translates desire as a wanting or a longing due to love.Why did you omit Luke 22:15, Philippians 1:23 and 1 Thessalonians 2:17 from your list?
Could it be that the word "epithumia" translated as lust/great desire in English is used in a positive manner?
Sorry Stryder. I wandered.
Those who defend the visions as true and good theology seem to have disappeared.
It's been shown that the children's visions are bad theology, deceptive, and point away from Christ to an entity called immaculate heart. That "heart" is their salvation based on what they said.
Let's hope they come to Christ before it's too late.
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