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As noted racists happy cite this biblical passage just as you cite Leviticus passages.Ok, the difference is two fold. One those verses actually have nothing to do with what you are talking about. And also, if I posted those verses, you would NEVER come away with the idea that they had anything to do with racism, unless you explained it in some sort of dialoge. I on the other had, do not need dialoge with the verses I posted, because they are clear, and are to the point. Can't get away from that.
When is the last time you went on vacation and learned another language while you were gone? Never, well, that's because you weren't a KJV translator.
Ignoring facts doesnt make the truth go away it just makes you look sad and desperate.
But you use Sodom to justify your own personal prejudice. However you wish to cherry pick just what you want out of that particular story ignoring the actions of Lot and the acquiescence of rape and child sexual abuse that is part of that same story. To use Sodom to justify prejudice against homosexuals is to leave one open to having to deal with the fact that Sodom also ends up showing child sexual abuse and rape are not immoral thingsJust because I brought up Sodom, does not mean I am for rape, and incest. And if you continue to put words in my mouth, I will report you, as I do not appreciate your attitude.
Well either the Bible promotes, or condemns slavery, which is it?No, I was not bringing condemnation on the Bible, I was just trying to get my point about slavery addressed. It's not off-topic, it directly relates to the issue of homosexuality.
It doesn't even have anything to do with racism. I would LOVE to hear someone use them for racism. Are you joking?As noted racists happy cite this biblical passage just as you cite Leviticus passages.
And yes I would come to the conclusion about race not just because I have seen these verses cited time and again in defense of racism.
Can you explain why you are condemning racists for doing exactly what you are doing in this thread?
None of which changes what was posted about the translation problems of Leviticus 18:22When is the last time you went on vacation and learned another language while you were gone? Never, well, that's because you weren't a KJV translator.
Ok, I see what you are saying. You are saying that I think Lot should have used his children as substatutes. Ok, well, that's an easy one. Lot was wrong, and should have never said what he said. He shouldn't have done it, and the Bible also doesn't say that he should have done it either.But you use Sodom to justify your own personal prejudice. However you wish to cherry pick just what you want out of that particular story ignoring the actions of Lot and the acquiescence of rape and child sexual abuse that is part of that same story. To use Sodom to justify prejudice against homosexuals is to leave one open to having to deal with the fact that Sodom also ends up showing child sexual abuse and rape are not immoral things
It is worth noting that I never said you support rape or child sexual abuse. However if you truly dont wish to be associated with such things then you might consider your use of Sodom to support your personal prejudices
Well either the Bible promotes, or condemns slavery, which is it?
The bible never condemns slaveryWell either the Bible promotes, or condemns slavery, which is it?
Except for the fact that their is no translation problem. Just because you think there is, doesn't mean there is. The KJV translators were aware of your translation problem, and they didn't make a mistake by translating it the way they did. They carefully had studied, and knew of all these things, they were 100% qualified to translate what they did. You are wrong, that "miss translation" is not correct. If you think you found something new, that these translators didn't already know about, you are wrong. They were smarter than you, and knew about it. They also knew not to translate it that way, end of story.None of which changes what was posted about the translation problems of Leviticus 18:22
Ok so was the Bible wrong?The bible never condemns slavery
Exodus 21:2-11
Exodus 21:20-21
Ephesians 6:5
1 Timothy 6:1-2
Luke 12:47-48
All promote slavery
Ok so was the Bible wrong?
The Bible never says slavery was a good thing. You are the ones that say it promoted slavery. So, YOU tell me. Was the Bible wrong?You tell us!
The passage is in reference to the curse that Noah places on Canaan, the son of Ham because Ham saw Noah naked after Noah went out and got snorting drunk. The "curse of Ham" has been used by some individuals to justify racism against the descendants of Ham, who are people of African ancestry.It doesn't even have anything to do with racism. I would LOVE to hear someone use them for racism. Are you joking?
Lot TRIED to use his daughters (which is interesting if one is pretending that the men of Sodom were homosexuals) and despite his advocating of rape and child sexual abuse was still considered by God to be moral and get a free bus pass out of Sodom.Ok, I see what you are saying. You are saying that I think Lot should have used his children as substatutes. Ok, well, that's an easy one. Lot was wrong, and should have never said what he said. He shouldn't have done it, and the Bible also doesn't say that he should have done it either.
The Bible never says slavery was a good thing. You are the ones that say it promoted slavery. So, YOU tell me. Was the Bible wrong?
Except you are claiming Leviticus 18:22 says "Do not have carnal relations with a man." When it does not say this.Except for the fact that their is no translation problem. Just because you think there is, doesn't mean there is.
The KJV translators were aware of your translation problem, and they didn't make a mistake by translating it the way they did.
evidnece?They carefully had studied,
evidnece?and knew of all these things,
evidnece?they were 100% qualified to translate what they did.
evidnece?You are wrong, that "miss translation" is not correct.
evidence?If you think you found something new, that these translators didn't already know about, you are wrong.
evidence?They were smarter than you,
evidnece?and knew about it.
evidence?They also knew not to translate it that way, end of story.
God allows a lot of things, but that doesn't mean that sense he allows certain things, that he wants us doing it. Again, now you are bringing condemnation on God, saying he promotes slavery.Look at the passages which were given earlier. I'll post a few more here to save you the trouble:
Leviticus 25:44-46: "Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly." (NIV)
Genesis 17:27: "And all the men of his house, born in the house, and bought with money of the stranger, were circumcised with him."
Genesis 16:1-2: "Now Sarai Abram's wife bare him no children: and she had an handmaid, an Egyptian, whose name was Hagar. And Sarai said unto Abram, Behold now, the LORD hath restrained me from bearing: I pray thee, go in unto my maid; it may be that I may obtain children by her. And Abram hearkened to the voice of Sarai."
Matthew 18:25: "But forasmuch as he had not to pay, his lord commanded him to be sold, and his wife, and children, and all that he had, and payment to be made."
The evidence is that they were SMARTER THAN YOU. They were 100% qualified in doing what they did, and I will go with THEIR translation of those words, over your translation of those words, because they were smarter, and more educated.Except you are claiming Leviticus 18:22 says "Do not have carnal relations with a man." When it does not say this.
Any evidence to back these claims up?
evidnece?
evidnece?
evidnece?
evidnece?
evidence?
evidence?
evidnece?
evidence?
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