Historic reasons for the shift from polytheism to monotheism

Agnus Dei-

I suspect that part of the reason was due to the nature of the gods of polytheism. They had all the weaknesses of men, and even delighted in performing acts which mankind saw as sinful (greek mythology is filled with such stories). Even as far back as egyptian mythology gods were murdering other gods in order to acheive power.

Under monotheism they found a God who was not only righteous, but who also expected the people who worshiped him to themselves be righteous. They were expected to refrain from committing acts which they knew to be sinful. They were to actively engage in activities which they knew to be righeous. And through the teachings contained in the Scriptures of each religion, the people knew which acts were sinful and which were righteous.

The people also noticed that within those societies where monotheism was already practised, the individuals living there, and even those passing through there, felt safe. They knew that they were less likely to be harmed by others, and even if they were attacked, there would be those who saw that attack as evil and came to their aid. IOW, the monotheistic society was stronger, and more cohesive. And in a world where a person could gather a small army and attack all around him in order to claim territory a strong, cohesive society was absolutely essential to the safety of the individual.

Agnus|Dei said:

But, what strictly non-religious reasons historians and anthropologists give about this distinct shift in religious faith and cognition? What changed in society and in people's thinking that allowed this shift to happen? I have always wondered about this, but have not been able to find any information. Why did Abrahamic monotheism sweep most of the world after ages of polytheism and paganism?

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The historic reasons are not that amazing. First, the spread of Christianity occurred almost totally within the old Roman Empire, and so the church had the benefit of working inside a governmental structure that valued free travel. That world was already a huge-grab bag of sects.

Why it won out over the others is another question, but the spread of Christianity, as a new sect that had branched off from Judaism was not flabbergasting. And don't forget that many other religions, many of them polytheistic, continued for many generations to compete with Christianity.

As for Islam, that came almost 600 years later and was basically a reworking of Judaism and Christianity, mixed in with some old Arabic paganism. And even now, after Christianity and Islam have encircled the globe, the two largest nations on Earth with almost half of the world's population have only small numbers of either one of them, paganism and polytheism remaining predominant there.

Agnus|Dei said:

I've always wondered why, after so many thousands of years - there was a distinct shift in humanity's religious beliefs starting after Jesus's crucifixion from polytheism towards Abrahamic religions.

Obviously, as we all know, the primary reason is the gospel that Jesus brought to mankind. Divine revelation should not be discounted of its effect on human history.

Same can be argued about Muhammad, who also brought word of monotheism across to even more of humankind. The Qu'ran talks about how the society Muhammad grew up was drowning in vice, idol worship, and sin, and the rise of Islam was something of a 'cleansing liberation' to create a pious new society. Almost like a religious revolution.

But, what strictly non-religious reasons historians and anthropologists give about this distinct shift in religious faith and cognition? What changed in society and in people's thinking that allowed this shift to happen? I have always wondered about this, but have not been able to find any information. Why did Abrahamic monotheism sweep most of the world after ages of polytheism and paganism?

I would appreciate any links, sources, or books about this question too. I've wanted to read about this for awhile.

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You assume polytheism was prior to monotheism.

However the biblical religions speak of a fall away from monotheism towards a polytheistic state and then we can see a gradual reconversion back to monotheism over the last 2-3000 years.

The lack of archaeological evidence for early forms of monotheism can be explained in terms of the aversion by monotheists of creating altars out of anything but uncut stone.

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[FONT=&quot]I’ve honestly never given the question of WHY forms of monotheism and semi-monotheism became more popular than forms of polytheism.
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[FONT=&quot]I believe albions’ specific point (post #3) is insightful regarding the effect the roman/byzantine empires and politics would have had on the spread of Christianity in its early forms. In the same manner as albion however, I’m not sure why the theology of monotheism itself, became predominant over polytheism. However, scholars are asking this very question regarding ancient vs later israel religion.
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[FONT=&quot]The early religious worldviews continue to be re-contextualized due to the many wonderful textual discoveries. For example, there have been more discoveries of early sacred texts in the 20th century than all other centuries combined (Qumran, nag hamadi, egerton, Brooklyn, c. sinaiticus, c. bezae, Ugarit, etc, etc).
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[FONT=&quot]The repeated confirmation of divine council themes studies of the early literature reveal early Israels belief in other, "lower level" divinities, ("sons of god", divine councils, etc.) which necessitates NEW terms to attempt to describe Israel’s most ancient worldview. For example, scholars have suggested “Henotheism” (the recognition of multiple lower divinities but the worship of only ONE Diety), or “monolatry” (the worship of ONE diety without denying the existence of other divinities).[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]As scholars discover the Modern theological term “monotheism” no longer accurately describes early Israels beliefs, we are starting to hear terms suggested such as “inclusive monotheism”, or “tolerant monolatry”, other scholars argue for “incipient monotheism”, etc. etc. The point is, that they are agreeing that ancient Israel was not purely monotheistic since they believed in a council of divine entities who were subservient to and assisted the Lord God.[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]M. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Η[/FONT][FONT=&quot]eiser, J. Tigay, F.M. Cross, T. Mullen, Morgenstern, Cyrus Gordon, Prinsloo, C. Seitz, MacDonald, E. Ulrich, Sanders, M. Van Ruiten, Gerald Cook, and many, many other scholars of early Jewish and Ugaritic texts are among those trying to generate new terms that accurately reflect what early Israel believed. (M. Heiser suggests that historians simply describe Israels early beliefs instead, especially since such terms will mainly have meaning only for the scholars and historians of these periods.) [/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Though all of them are aware of Israels “henotheism” (i.e. awareness of other dieties though only ONE is worthy of worthip), as far as I have been able to see in a quick overview of some of their texts, little discussion considers the motives for monotheism to become the most popular worldview for the more modern Jews.[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]I’ve read a pre-publication suggestion b y W. Williams that a similar evolution took place in Islam but I will have to wait for the published paper before I can give it much credence. (the concept sounds a bit dubious.. We’ll see what sort of case he brings to his published paper&#8230 Certainly modern Islam looks at the various Christian “trinity” models as “polytheistic monostheism” or “monotheistic polytheism”. (Since Christians themselves have such a difficult time in their debates, to adequately define and come to any concensus that explains their various “trinities” to non-christian investigators, one can scarcely blame non-christians for being confused and wary.)[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]A colleague and I were discussing your post as it relates to why Israel (and others) adopted a more “monotheistic” worldview over the millennia and I have wondered if it was simply either a tendency to "adopt simplicity" in religion or a gradual re-contexting of and/or changing focus on a very simplistic Jewish Shema.
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[FONT=&quot]For example, the first part in Jewish shema reads “Hear o Israel, the Lord our God, the Lord is one…”.

Did the early concept of Gods’ “incomparability” in the early Shema take on the meaning of “exclusivity” in a later Shema? If so, the early Israelite doctrine may have evolved from God being "incomparable" and the ONLY divinity worthy of worship compared to the other divinities surrounding him, to becoming an “exclusive” and the ONLY divinity. [/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]I honestly don’t know why Israel and other religions adopted a differing form of relative monotheism, but I think it is an interesting question. I’d like to see OTHER scholars tackle this question, but, perhaps like me, their main interest lies elsewhere and they might not want to take the time away from priority issues, in order to study such very, very, interesting questions.[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Clearly
eitztzzz

P.S. I agree with the specific claim in Mindlight's post (the one prior to mine) regarding Israel being "polytheistic" in a "henotheistic" manner, (i.e. I think the period scholars are correct on this point), though I do not think this represented an apostasy from an earlier time as Mindlight intimates. (the discussions among the scholars regarding other divinities includes "...Let us make man in our image,..." in Genesis)
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