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G-d Sanctifies Abortions: Numbers 5:11-31

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Rajni

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juvenissun

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Abortion has been around since recorded History and the only mention that I know of it in the Bible has G-d sanctifying it in a ritual.

Apparently you can have a Holy Abortion.

I read the verses three times. I don't see any implication on abortion. How do you get this idea from it?
 
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juvenissun

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I dunno... even with that explanation, if one defines
abortion as the termination of a life, then the ritual could still
be seen as God sanctifying it. All in all, not a very 'pro-life'
process, imo.


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Verses 27 and 28 clearly suggest that the cheating woman is NOT pregnant.
There is not a slightest shadow of pregnancy and abortion in the whole passage.
 
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Rajni

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Verses 27 and 28 clearly suggest that the cheating woman is NOT pregnant.
There is not a slightest shadow of pregnancy and abortion in the whole passage.
I agree. However, according to the aforementioned article,
which states, "If a wife was found guilty, the punishment
was death (Leviticus 20:10)", the wife
would be aborted (again, pro-lifers would define abortion as
the termination of a life). Hence, my previous statement
regarding it.


-
 
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Mark51

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No affliction was brought on by the water itself. But it was drunk before Jehovah, who knew whether the woman was guilty of adultery. If she was, he would make her belly swell and her thigh fall away.

Just what is meant by the swelling of the belly and the falling away of the thigh is not certain. It is quite evident, however, that thigh as here used is a euphemism or a delicate way of referring to the sexual organs, as is the case at Genesis 46:26. It is logical that if any bodily parts be afflicted it should be the ones committing the wrong, as is the case when Jesus figuratively spoke of ridding yourself of a body member that hindered your entry into the Kingdom. (Mark 9:43-47) The expression “fall away” is understood to mean “waste away,” “shrink” or “shrivel,” and hence would suggest that the sex organs atrophied and that there was a loss of fertility and ability to conceive. This view harmonizes with the statement that if the woman was innocent she was to be made pregnant, implying that if she was guilty any future pregnancy would be denied her. Her belly would swell because of the curse, but not due to the blessing of pregnancy.

This account is not completely clear. However it suggest that even if adultery was committed, conception may not have occurred. Or, if conception has occurred, a god induced abortion was not the result. Punishment was the inability to further conceive-not an abortion. Life, even embryos, is deemed precious. (Exodus 21:22, 23). Considering otherwise contradicts other Bible references about life, conception, and death.
 
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Abortion has been around since recorded History and the only mention that I know of it in the Bible has G-d sanctifying it in a ritual.

Apparently you can have a Holy Abortion.

That's not what that passage says.

It says that the woman will be cursed in that she will not be able to bear children. She will not be able to bring the infant to full term of pregnancy but will miscarry.

A miscarriage is not an abortion.
 
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juvenissun

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Abortion has been around since recorded History and the only mention that I know of it in the Bible has G-d sanctifying it in a ritual.

Apparently you can have a Holy Abortion.

I do not any thing related to or implied abortion in those verses.

Edit: I forgot I responded to this before. Again, no matter how and when do I read it, I don't see ANYTHING about abortion.
 
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twob4me

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