Anyone can so self-claim for self alone, and anyone can make whatever chain of assumptions flowing from such.
But, of course, it remains such until it is substantiated.
What I think is notable is that the RCC and EO - wonderful and praiseworthy as they are - are never so much as even mentioned in the Scriptures, about anything. No authorizations are given to them. No promises. Nothing; they aren't even mentioned. About anything.
Now, yes, I think it is reasonable that the clergy in the RCC and LDS have a "line of ordination" going back to the Twelve. The same is true for Lutherans, Anglicans, Reformed and other clergy. However, any significance of such also needs to be substantiated - and why uniquely to the RCC or EO or OO or Anglican or Lutheran? Virtually ALL Christian clergy today have the same likihood of a "line of ordination" back to the Twelve.
We all know the unique interpretation of the RCC for the "keys" issue. It is highly, highly debated - and only one denomination agrees with the RCC's rather self-serving view there, the RCC. And we all know that the LDS also claims to have been founded by Jesus and that too is highly, highly debated - and only denomination agrees with the LDS's rather self-serving view there - the LDS. What seems obvious to ME is that Jesus founded His church. Now, is that church the community of believers, the communion of saints, the mystical union of all belivers or was it the specific, singular, particular CATHOLIC or GREEK ORTHODOX or LDS denomination? All Christian faith has "roots" to the Apostles and all our institutions (including denominations) do - no one denies that, but does that mean that Jesus specificly founded on specific denomination that exists right now - and no other? Did He establish a faith community or a denominational institution?
The RCC exclusively claims for itself exclusively that Jesus gave it all this remarkable authority. The "substantiation" it gives for this is its own unique "interpretation" of a couple of Scriptures that don't so much as even MENTION it, and then statements that it has cherrypicked - often from centuries AFTER it says it was founded - from people who seemed to believe it so. The LDS is the same, and they also use a couple of Scriptures (yes, from the Bible - not just thier unique additional Scriptures) as it itself exclusively interprets them that don't so much as even MENTION it, and then statements that it has cherrypicked - often very close in time to the founding of that specific denomination - from people who seem to believe it so. Now, I'm not implying ANYTHING insincere on the part of the RCC or LDS here. I'm not implying ANYTHING disparaging toward the RCC or LDS here. Only that each "substantiates" it's claim in the same way: by pointing to Scriptures that don't so much as even MENTION it - much less give ANY authority to it, just using the remarkable interpretation of itself alone to support the remarkable claim of itself alone - and each's own "tradition" as it itself chooses and interprets. It really doesn't have a thing to do with "succession" (as if such could be substantiated anyway - it can't prior to the 4th century) since the beginning point of this sucession was PEOPLE, not the RCC or EO or OO or any other denomination.
Here's the simply, unavoidable, historic point: Jesus never authorized or promised any denomination anything. Including the RCC. Nor did He once direct our attention (much less our docility) toward any denominational entity - including the RCC. That's not to say the RCC isn't an orthodox, wonderful, praise-worthy denomination - I think it is, but there is no evidence that Jesus ever authorized IT or promised IT anything.
That's my perspective.
Pax
- Josiah