- Mar 5, 2011
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Here's an idea i had on my own. It may not be original but to myself it is.
It's dificult to deside how to proceed with my thoughts as i am not a gifted writer so bear with me. Also my bible is not available now so i cannot quote exact verses. OK HERE GOES
1st - Do we agree that Jesus was "All Man" as He was "All God"? If you're with me here than you must agree that He was suseptable to every law, rule, temptation and weakness as ourselves. Therefore He also should be granted all the Godly promises granted ourselves. For instance: God promises to Love us unconditionally. God promises to give us His spirit. God promises never to turn his back on us. If Jesus is all man these all apply to Him correct? So - If God can forsake Jesus He can forsake us. He said, "I will never leave you nor forsake you". That was writen for all mankind of which Jesus was a part. (If He was not all man He could not be our perfect opposite to Adam). As sin entered the world through the sin of one man it is conquered through the sinless life of another man.
Bear With Me Just A Little Longer.
Jesus said just before his death, "My God, My God, Why Have You Forsaken Me?
Did Jesus actually mean this? Did God actually break His promise to mankind and Forsake a man? Does this mean He can forsake me?
Men have long found excuses for this. The most popular being that God could not be in the presence of sin. I however have sin and He has not forsaken me. Ok I concede Jesus took all this upon Himself BUT< BUT, This theory is not based on the BIBLE. It is only a theory.
OK, Here It Is. My Food For Thought.
Jesus was always quoting testiment to make a point. "It Has Been Writen", "You Have Heard", "It Has Been Said" Why would He not continue this trend even unto His death?
I point you to a Place in Psalms when David was at the Lowest Point of his life. David - a man who asked little and accepted much of God. He once asked a very important Question of God. A question that was never answered. His question in simple terms was this. When Will I Be Saved. He begins this elaberate, heart felt prayer with these exact words. "My God, My God, Why Have You Forsaken Me"? He goes on to ask when he will be saved.
Could Jesus actually been saying, NOW DAVID, RIGHT NOW.
He would answer in a way we could clue into. After all, the answer to Davids question was (at Jesus death) or in Jesus eyes at the time, (right now). Jesus may have answered David by quoting David with righteous demonstration.
Remember. This is only my idea. The problem of Gods promise coupled with Jesus' humanity and the existing delema they pose bothered me so much i made a consentated study of it. This was my answer and it works wonderfully for me. Thanks for giving me your time
It's dificult to deside how to proceed with my thoughts as i am not a gifted writer so bear with me. Also my bible is not available now so i cannot quote exact verses. OK HERE GOES
1st - Do we agree that Jesus was "All Man" as He was "All God"? If you're with me here than you must agree that He was suseptable to every law, rule, temptation and weakness as ourselves. Therefore He also should be granted all the Godly promises granted ourselves. For instance: God promises to Love us unconditionally. God promises to give us His spirit. God promises never to turn his back on us. If Jesus is all man these all apply to Him correct? So - If God can forsake Jesus He can forsake us. He said, "I will never leave you nor forsake you". That was writen for all mankind of which Jesus was a part. (If He was not all man He could not be our perfect opposite to Adam). As sin entered the world through the sin of one man it is conquered through the sinless life of another man.
Bear With Me Just A Little Longer.
Jesus said just before his death, "My God, My God, Why Have You Forsaken Me?
Did Jesus actually mean this? Did God actually break His promise to mankind and Forsake a man? Does this mean He can forsake me?
Men have long found excuses for this. The most popular being that God could not be in the presence of sin. I however have sin and He has not forsaken me. Ok I concede Jesus took all this upon Himself BUT< BUT, This theory is not based on the BIBLE. It is only a theory.
OK, Here It Is. My Food For Thought.
Jesus was always quoting testiment to make a point. "It Has Been Writen", "You Have Heard", "It Has Been Said" Why would He not continue this trend even unto His death?
I point you to a Place in Psalms when David was at the Lowest Point of his life. David - a man who asked little and accepted much of God. He once asked a very important Question of God. A question that was never answered. His question in simple terms was this. When Will I Be Saved. He begins this elaberate, heart felt prayer with these exact words. "My God, My God, Why Have You Forsaken Me"? He goes on to ask when he will be saved.
Could Jesus actually been saying, NOW DAVID, RIGHT NOW.
He would answer in a way we could clue into. After all, the answer to Davids question was (at Jesus death) or in Jesus eyes at the time, (right now). Jesus may have answered David by quoting David with righteous demonstration.
Remember. This is only my idea. The problem of Gods promise coupled with Jesus' humanity and the existing delema they pose bothered me so much i made a consentated study of it. This was my answer and it works wonderfully for me. Thanks for giving me your time
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